UGC NET Exam December 2018 Forensic Science Paper-2 Question Paper With Answer Key

1. Arrange the following petroleum products in increasing order of boiling point :

(i) Liquid Petroleum gas

(ii) Naphtha

(iii) Wax

(iv) Aviation fuel

(v) Gasoline

Code:

  1. (i), (v), (iv), (ii), (iii)
  2. (i), (iv), (v), (ii), (iii)
  3. (iv), (i), (v), (iii), (ii)
  4. (i), (ii), (v), (iv), (iii)

Answer: (4) (i), (ii), (v), (iv), (iii)

2. Which of the following is the innermost layer of human hair?

  1. Medulla
  2. Cuticle
  3. Cortex
  4. Scales

Answer: (1) Medulla

3. During the process of Portland cement manufacturing, a mixture of limestone, clay or other materials are heated at around ____________ temperature.

  1. 1025°C
  2. 600°C
  3. 1450°C
  4. 2000°C

Answer: (3) 1450°C

4. Which of the following techniques is used for determining the generic classification of the polymer type?

  1. Laser microspectral analyser
  2. Differential thermal analysis
  3. Polarised microscopy
  4. Polarometry

Answer: (2) Differential thermal analysis

5. Which of the following part of the human hair includes nuclear DNA?

  1. Tip of hair
  2. Medulla of hair
  3. Root of hair
  4. Shaft of hair

Answer: (3) Root of hair

6. The study of hair is also known as which of the following?

  1. Histology
  2. Trichology
  3. Phytology
  4. Pathology

Answer: (2) Trichology

7. Assertion (A): Earliest post-mortem change is greenish discoloration over the face.

Reason (R): Putrefaction produces H2S which combines with hemoglobin to form sulfhemoglobin.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

8. Assertion (A): In Paint analysis “XRD” is more suitable for inorganic pigments rather than organic pigments.

Reason (R): Inorganic pigments are more likely to produce crystalline structures than organic pigments.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

9. Which of the following statements is not true?

  1. The chemical and physical effects of various electromagnetic radiations are quite similar.
  2. The potential energy of an atom depends on the electronic configuration.
  3. Molecular spectra are much more complicated than those of atomic spectra.
  4. X-rays cause the ejection of inner electrons from matter.

Answer: (2) The potential energy of an atom depends on the electronic configuration.

10. Bragg equation is associated with which of the following techniques?

  1. Differential Thermal Analysis
  2. X-ray Diffraction Analysis
  3. Microspectral Analysis
  4. Reflectance Analysis

Answer: (2) X-ray Diffraction Analysis

11. Assertion (A): Derivatization prior to gas chromatography is often desirable.
Reason (R): It changes the separation properties of compounds by the purposeful adjustment of their volatility.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
  2. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct

Answer: (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct

12. Mercury cadmium telluride (MCT) detector is in which of the following instruments?

  1. UV- visible microspectrophotometer
  2. FT-IR microspectrophotometer
  3. Electron probe micro analyser
  4. Capillary electrophoresis

Answer: (2) FT-IR microspectrophotometer

13. The outer-wall of capillary columns in gas chromatography is coated with polyimide in order to protect the thin-wall from

  1. Corrosion
  2. Scratches
  3. Heat
  4. Humidity

Answer: (2) Scratches

14. Assertion (A): In UV-spectrophotometer, a monochromator is placed before the sample.

Reason (R): This reduces the total amount of UV energy which falls on to the sample.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct
  2. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
  3. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct

Answer: (2) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect

15. Which of the following statements is not correct for a spectrophotometer?

  1. Decreasing the slit width will increase noise
  2. Noise will increase with the age of source
  3. Decreasing the slit width will decrease noise
  4. Noise will depend on the wavelength being used

Answer: (3) Decreasing the slit width will decrease noise

16. Artificial radioactivity is

  1. Induced radioactivity
  2. Natural radioactivity
  3. Having very short half-life
  4. Having very long half-life

Answer: (1) Induced radioactivity

17. Assertion (A): The nature of all electromagnetic radiations is the same.
Reason (R): They differ only in frequency and wavelength and in the effect they produce in matter.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct
  2. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
  3. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct

Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct

18. Assertion (A): No two signatures can be written exactly alike by one person.
Reason (R): Human hand works on the instruction of the brain and cannot work like a machine.

  1. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
  2. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct

Answer: (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct

19. Dermal ridge characteristics used for comparison of fingerprints are also called which of the following?

  1. Henry’s details
  2. Fauld’s details
  3. Vucetich’s details
  4. Galton’s details

Answer: (4) Galton’s Details

20. Assertion (A): A fingerprint pattern may have delta and core but still cannot qualify as a loop pattern.

Reason (R): A loop pattern must have minimum one ridge count.

  1. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct
  2. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct
  4. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

Answer: (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct

21. In major classification of fingerprints, which of the following is considered?

  1. The ridge count or trace value of little fingers
  2. The ridge count or trace value of middle fingers
  3. The ridge count or trace value on index fingers
  4. The ridge count or trace value of thumbs

Answer: (4) The ridge count or trace value of thumbs

22. Select from the following lists of glands, which are not present in the palm skin (ridged skin):

(i) Sweat glands (ii) Sebaceous glands (iii) Endocrine glands (iv) Epicrine glands

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

  1. (ii) and (iv)
  2. (i), (ii) and (iv)
  3. (ii) and (iii)
  4. (i), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (3) (ii) and (iii)

23. Two innermost ridges running parallel, which diverge and surround or tend to surround the pattern area are called

  1. Pattern lines
  2. Type lines
  3. Arch lines
  4. Galton’s lines

Answer: (2) Type lines

24. Ridge structure in fingerprints is mainly determined by which of the following?

  1. Epidermis
  2. Sebum glands
  3. Dermal papillae
  4. Sweat glands

Answer: (3) Dermal papillae

25. Which of the following is the full form of VSC?

  1. Video Spectrum Comparison
  2. Video Spectral Comparator
  3. Visualized Spectrum Comparison
  4. Video Simulation Comparator

Answer: (2) Video Spectral Comparator

26. In GLC, to elute an alcohol before an ether having nearly identical boiling points, a stationary phase is needed having which of the following?

  1. High Z’ value
  2. High X’ value
  3. High Y’ value
  4. High U’ value

Answer: (3) High Y’ value

27. Prisoners are admitted to open air jail on the authority of

  1. Judicial authorities
  2. Police authorities
  3. Jail authorities
  4. Army authorities

Answer: (3) Jail authorities

28. Match the following:

List-I (Type of Satellite DNA)List-II (Size of repeat unit in base pairs)
(a) Microsatellite(i) 6
(b) Minisatellite (telomeric)(ii) 1million – 10 million
(c) Minisatellite (hypervariable)(iii) 100- Several thousand
(d) Satellite(iv) 7-100
(v) 1-6
(a)(b)(c)(d)
1.(i)(ii)(v)(iii)
2.(iv)(v)(i)(iii)
3.(v)(i)(iv)(iii)
4.(iii)(iv)(i)(v)

Answer: (3) v, i, iv, iii

29. A part of teeth which is primarily composed of calcium phosphate and makes the outer part of the teeth is known as which of the following?

  1. Periodontal ligament
  2. Enamel
  3. Dentin
  4. Cementum

Answer: (2) Enamel

30. In cases of mass burials searches of human remains, which of the following techniques in considered to be the most invasive?

  1. Use of ground penetrating radars
  2. Ground based visual search
  3. Creation of vent holes and use of cadaver dogs
  4. Use of electrical resistivity survey

Answer: (3) Creation of vent holes and use of cadaver dogs

31. To convict Ted Bundy, which of the following evidence was used?

  1. Shoe print
  2. Bite mark
  3. DNA
  4. Tyre impression

Answer: (2) Bite mark

32. Which of the following computer databases is created to help forensic anthropologists in determining various traits of personal identification?

  1. IBIS
  2. AFIS
  3. FORDISC
  4. DORDISC

Answer: (3) FORDISC

33. For personal identification from skeletonized human remains, which of the following is not of potential use?

  1. Surgical implants
  2. Dental anomalies
  3. Tattoos
  4. Bone disorders

Answer: (3) Tattoos     

34. Assertion (A): Ossification of bones helps in estimation of age in subadults.
Reason (R): Epiphyseal unions in most of the bones are complete by the age of 18.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct
  3. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
  4. (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct

Answer: (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct

35. Which of the following indicates that skeletal remains recovered are contemporary?

  1. Grainy pitted texture
  2. Smooth bone surface
  3. Fixed burial position
  4. Brown colour of skeleton

Answer: (2) Smooth bone surface

36. Bertillon developed which of the following methods for personal identification?

  1. Anthropometry
  2. Fingerprints
  3. Lip prints
  4. Footprints

Answer: (1) Anthropometry

37. Which of the following skeletal remains are considered the best for stature estimation?

  1. Pelvis
  2. Long bones
  3. Cranium
  4. Clavicle

Answer: (2) Long bones

38. Which of the following is the correct age by which all the milk teeth are erupted in humans?

  1. 20 months
  2. 36 months
  3. 24 months
  4. 30 months

Answer: (2) 30 months

39. Gen. Journee, who gave the formula to calculate the maximum range of a shotgun pellet commonly known as “Journee’s formula”, belongs to which of the undermentioned countries?

  1. England
  2. Italy
  3. France
  4. United States of America

Answer: (3) France

40. The main purpose of a cartridge case is

(i) Expand and seal the chamber during firing

(ii) Easily adapted to be used by any firearm

(iii) Holding the components together

(iv) Could easily be reused

Code:

  1. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
  2. (i) and (iii) are correct
  3. (ii) and (iv) are correct
  4. (ii) and (iii) are correct

Answer: (2) (i) and (iii) are correct

41. Which of the undermentioned terms truly represents the space between the primer cup and the primer pocket?

  1. Annulus
  2. Battery cup
  3. Flash -Hole
  4. Head Space

Answer: (1) Annulus

42. Arrange the following in order of their appearance of the discharge in a firearm:

(i) Bullet (ii) Unburnt and partially burnt propellant particle (iii) Scorching (iv) Blackening

Code:

  1. (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
  2. (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
  3. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
  4. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Answer: (3) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

43. Match the following:

InstrumentMaterial
(a) ARSENAL(i) USA
(b) CIBLE(ii) England
(c) FIREBALL(iii) Russia
(d) NIBIN(iv) France
(v) Australia
(a)(b)(c)(d)
1.(iii)(iv)(v)(i)
2.(ii)(iii)(i)(iv)
3.(ii)(i)(iii)(v)
4.(ii)(iv)(v)(i)

Answer: (1) (iii), (iv), (v), (i)

44. When pellets of a shotgun cartridge stick together and travel for large distances as a single mass, the phenomenon is known as

  1. External ricochet
  2. Kronlein shot
  3. Internal ricochet
  4. Balling of shot

Answer: (4) Balling of shot

45. The term associated with the ignition of the priming compound of a cartridge due to overheating is

  1. Centre fire cartridge
  2. Rim fire cartridge
  3. Cook off cartridge
  4. Proof cartridge

Answer: (3) Cook off cartridge

46. Lead-2,4,6-trimifroresor-cindte which is used as a priming compound is also known as

  1. Lead azide
  2. Pyrodex
  3. Lead rhodizonate
  4. Lead styphnate

Answer: (4) Lead Styphnate

47. In primacord, the core is made up of which of the following?

  1. PETN
  2. RDX
  3. TNT
  4. NG

Answer: (1) PETN

48. Which of the following explosives cannot be detected by ion mobility spectrometer?

  1. PETN
  2. RDX
  3. TATP
  4. HMX

Answer: (3) TATP

49. Caffey’s syndrome is

  1. a condition where the baby is beaten repeatedly by parents
  2. the death of an infant within 28 days
  3. precipitate labour
  4. dry drowning

Answer: (1) a condition where the baby is beaten repeatedly by parents

50. The signs of live birth are

(i) Diaphragm at level of 7th rib.

(ii) Absolute weight of both lungs is 70 gm.

(iii) Specific gravity of lungs is 1.05.

(iv) Pleura is loose and wrinkled.

Code:

  1. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
  2. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
  3. (i) and (ii) are correct
  4. (ii) and (iv) are correct

Answer: (3) (i) and (ii) are correct

51. Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy (MSbP) is

  1. Psychiatric condition in which young children grow moustache
  2. Mother deliberately cause injury to her child to gain attention
  3. Any person (male or female) causes injury to himself to get medical leave
  4. One sibling beats another to gain attention

Answer: (2) Mother deliberately cause injury to her child to gain attention

52. Iatrogenic injuries are

  1. Produced by self
  2. Produced during defense
  3. Produced by doctors
  4. Produced by unqualified quacks

Answer: (3) Produced by doctors

53. Match the following:

List-IList-II
(a) PM40 knife(i) Used for springing off the skull cap
(b) Chainmail gloves(ii) Only useful in enucleation of eyes
(c) T-shaped chisel(iii) May be used to section lung and liver
(d) Brain knife(iv) Commonly used in UK but not in India
(v) Used for conducting autopsy on HIV+ patients
(a)(b)(c)(d)
1.(iv)(v)(i)(iii)
2.(iii)(i)(ii)(iv)
3.(i)(iii)(iv)(ii)
4.(v)(iv)(iii)(i)

Answer: (1) (iv), (v), (i), (iii)

54. Which of the following are true regarding Cadaveric spasm?

(i) Mimics Heat Rigor

(Ii) Occurs When Person Was Sleeping At The Time Of Death

(Iii) Occurs Instantaneously After Death

(Iv) Molecular Death Does Not Occur

Code:

  1. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
  2. (i) and (iii) are correct
  3. (iii) and (iv) are correct
  4. (i) and (ii) are correct

Answer: (3) (iii) and (iv) are correct

55. Fatal hypoxia occurs when oxygen saturation of arterial blood drops to

  1. 90 mm Hg
  2. 70 mm Hg
  3. 20 mm Hg
  4. 2 mm Hg

Answer: (2) 70 mmHg

56. Phosphine liberated in the stomach in aluminum phosphide poisoning is toxic to all except

  1. Lungs
  2. Kidneys
  3. Liver
  4. Heart

Answer: (4) Heart

57. Compression of the body within a narrow space resulting in asphyxia is known as

  1. Choking
  2. Bansdola
  3. Burking
  4. Wedging

Answer: (4) Wedging

58. Assertion (A): Kevlar fibers were initially used for making soft body armour which was replaced by ultra high molecular weight polyethylene fiber.
Reason (R): Kevlar fiber is not stable to UV light and loses its ability to stop bullets if wet.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

59. Which of the following techniques can be applied for the examination of cement samples?

  1. UV-visible spectrometry
  2. IR-spectrometry
  3. X-ray diffraction spectrometry
  4. Thin-layer chromatography

Answer: (3) X-ray diffraction spectrometry

60. Which polymer is most commonly used for manufacturing food grade containers?

  1. Polyethylene
  2. Polystyrene
  3. Poly ethylene terephthalate
  4. Poly vinyl chloride

Answer: (3) Poly ethylene terephthalate

61. Assertion (A): Narcoanalysis uses sedatives and hypnotics.
Reason (R): Person lies using his imagination.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

62. The book titled “Ames on Forgery” has been authored by

  1. Joseph Ames
  2. Hans Ames
  3. Harris Ames
  4. Daniel Ames

Answer: (4) Daniel Ames

63. American Academy of Forensic Science was established in which of the following years?

  1. 1948
  2. 1928
  3. 1918
  4. 1938

Answer: (1) 1948

64. Which of the following is corroborative evidence?

  1. An evidence that supports other evidence
  2. An evidence that refutes other evidence
  3. An evidence that associates an individual with another individual
  4. An evidence that links an individual with a particular location

Answer: (1) An evidence that supports other evidence

65. Assertion (A): RSID blood test detects glycophorin A
Reason (R): Glycophorin A is present in cytoplasm of basophils

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false

66. Confirmatory tests for blood are

(i) Luminal test (ii) Hemin crystal test (iii) Wagenaar test (iv) Spectroscopic examination

Code:

  1. (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
  2. (i) and (iv) are correct
  3. (ii) and (iv) are correct
  4. (i) and (iii) are correct

Answer: (1) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

67. MMP-14, estrogen receptor α and fibrinogen can be used to detect

  1. Menstrual blood
  2. Tears
  3. Breast milk
  4. Seminal fluid

Answer: (1) Menstrual blood

68. STRs are highly polymorphic. STR alleles per locus are

  1. 5-20
  2. 50-150
  3. 500-1000
  4. 1000-10000

Answer: (1) 5-20

69. The most widely used polymorphic serum protein for identification before DNA profiling was:

  1. Group-specific Component (Gc)
  2. Ag groups
  3. Gm and Km systems
  4. Serum haptoglobins

Answer: (4) Serum haptoglobins

70. Which of the following are correct regarding Mitochondrial DNA Analysis?

(i) mt DNA has 16,569 base pairs

(ii) Each mitochondria contains 105mt DNA strands

(iii) mt DNA is divided into 2 hyper variable regions- HVR1 and HVR2

(iv) HVR1 extends from bp 16,000- 16,569

Code:

  1. Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
  2. Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
  3. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
  4. Only (i), and (iv) are correct

Answer: (2) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct

71. If the blood group of Father is M, Mother is MN, then the impossible blood group in child is

  1. N
  2. M
  3. MN
  4. Both N and MN

Answer: (1) N

72. Fisher and Race theory attempts to explain the inheritance of

  1. ABO blood group
  2. HLA
  3. Rh blood group
  4. Secretor or non-secretor status

Answer: (3) Rh blood group

73. Assertion (A): Defense wounds are usually found on hands
Reason (R): Most attacks are done by upper limbs rather than lower limbs.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

74. Match the following:

List-IList-II
(a) Fiber(i) Capillary electrophoresis
(b) Alcohol(ii) pH meter
(c) DNA(iii) Microscopy
(d) Soil(iv) Gas chromatography
(a)(b)(c)(d)
1.(ii)(i)(iii)(iv)
2.(iii)(iv)(i)(ii)
3.(iii)(ii)(iv)(i)
4.(i)(ii)(iii)(iv)

Answer: (2) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

75. Which one of the following is not a part of documentation of scene of crime?

  1. Note taking at scene of crime
  2. Photography at scene of crime
  3. Protection of scene of crime
  4. Sketching of scene of crime

Answer: (3) Protection of scene of crime

76. The author of the book titled ‘The Examination and Typing of Bloodstains in the Crime Laboratory’ is

  1. Karl Landsteiner
  2. Alec Jeffreys
  3. Kary Mullis
  4. Bryan Culliford

Answer: (4) Bryan Culliford

77. ____________ should be able to demonstrate every single step undertaken to ensure traceability and continuity of evidence from crime scene to courtroom.

  1. First Information Report
  2. Case diary
  3. Chain of Custody
  4. Daily diary

Answer: (3) Chain of Custody

78. Match the following:

List-IList-II
(a) Suicide(i) Section 300 IPC
(b) Culpable homicide amounting to murder(ii) Section 304 A IPC
(c) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder(iii) Section 376 IPC
(d) Causing death by negligence(iv) Section 299 IPC
(v) Section 309 IPC
(a)(b)(c)(d)
1.(v)(ii)(iii)(iv)
2.(ii)(iii)(i)(v)
3.(i)(iv)(ii)(iii)
4.(v)(i)(iv)(ii)

Answer: (4) (v), (i), (iv), (ii)

79. Assertion (A): Section 84 IPC exonerates a person from responsibility of any crime committed by him.

Reason (R): A mentally ill person does not know what he is doing.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

80. The Gerber method is used to detect

  1. Fat in milk
  2. Sperms in seminal fluid
  3. Hb in Blood
  4. Amylase in saliva

Answer: (1) Fat in milk

81. Rapid Stain Identification Series (RSID) helps to detect

  1. Saliva and blood
  2. Blood, urine, and seminal fluid
  3. Seminal fluid and blood
  4. Saliva, blood, urine, and seminal fluid

Answer: (4 ) Saliva, blood, urine, and seminal fluid

82. Which is correct about milk?

  1. Specific gravity is 1.025- 1.035 and pH is 6.6
  2. Specific gravity is 1.025- 1.035 and pH is 10.6
  3. Specific gravity is 1.21- 1.31 and pH is 7.0
  4. Specific gravity is 2.2- 3.2 and pH is 2.5

Answer: (1) Specific gravity is 1.025- 1.035 and pH is 6.6

83. Mab 4E6

(a) Can be used to identify seminal stains

(b) Is not found in animal seminal fluid

(c) Can be used to identify fecal stains

(d) Is found in azoospermic persons

Choose the correct answer from the code given below

  1. (a), (b) and (d)
  2. (a) and (b)
  3. Only (c)
  4. (a) and (d)

Answer: (1) (a), (b) and (d)

84. Which of the following is the active growth phase of human hair?

  1. Anagen
  2. Catagen
  3. Telogen
  4. Follicogen

Answer: (1) Anagen

85. Phadebas test is used to detect

  1. Feces
  2. Seminal fluid
  3. Saliva
  4. Milk

Answer: (3) Saliva

86. Presence of Doderlin’s bacillus in a suspect stain, indicate that it could be

  1. Saliva
  2. Seminal fluid
  3. Vomitus
  4. Vaginal fluid

Answer: (4) Vaginal fluid

87. In a suspected stain, high amount of Tamm-Horsfall Protein (THP) has been detected. Suspect stain is likely to be

  1. Vaginal fluid
  2. Vomitus
  3. Feces
  4. Urine

Answer: (4) Urine

88. In crude oil, which one of the non hydrocarbon element is most abundant?

  1. Oxygen
  2. Sulphur
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Helium

Answer: (1) Oxygen

89. Given below are the two statement one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as a Reason(R).

Assertion (A): Changes in writing written on digital pad may be usually of superficial nature and there is no effect on individual writing characteristics.
Reason(R):
Digital pad, as an environment to write is different than that of paper, the conventional medium of writing.

In the light of the above two statement choose the correct option

  1. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer: (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

90. A child learns writing through a set of model writing alphabets. Which of the following is the correct term for these model writing?

  1. Copybook form
  2. Master pattern of writing
  3. Model signature
  4. Script writing

Answer: (1) Copybook form

91. In methyl alcohol poisoning, there is a central nervous system depression, cardiac depression and blindness. This effect are produced due to which of the following?

  1. Formaldehyde and formic acid
  2. Acetaldehyde
  3. Pyridine
  4. Acetic acid

Answer: (1) Formaldehyde and formic acid

92. Given below are the two statement one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as a Reason(R).

Assertion (A): The impurity profile of an illicit drug is performed by analyzing natural components, by product, cutting agents which help to generate a complete history of the sample and does in its characterization.
Reason(R): 
It is used to establish specific links between two or more illicit samples.

In the light of the above two statement choose the correct option

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

93. Croton, a glycoside of croton tiglium, belongs to which of the following class of poison?

  1. Cardiac
  2. Neurotic
  3. Cerebral
  4. Irritant

Answer: (4) Irritant

94. Indane belongs to which of the following?

  1. Naphthenes
  2. Alkenes
  3. Aliphatics
  4. Aromatics

Answer: (4) Aromatics

95. Widmark equation is used to calculate

  1. Breath alcohol concentration
  2. Blood alcohol concentration
  3. Urine alcohol concentration
  4. Sweat alcohol concentration

Answer: (2) Blood alcohol concentration

96. Which of the following enzymes regulate the metabolism of opiates?

  1. SULT 2
  2. CYP2D6
  3. COMT
  4. MT

Answer: (2) CYP2DS6

97. Which of the following microcrystal tests is used to distinguish among the three amphetamines?

  1. Gold chloride volatility test
  2. Mercuric iodide
  3. Potassium permanganate
  4. Lead iodide

Answer: (1) Gold chloride volatility test

98. Oxycodone is synthesized from which of the following?

  1. Codeine
  2. Thebaine
  3. Ecgonine
  4. Noscapine

Answer: (2) Thebaine

99. Acetic anhydride is used in the illicit synthesis of which of the following?

  1. Methaqualone
  2. Psilocybin
  3. Mescaline
  4. Phencyclidine

Answer: (1) Methaqualone

100. Phase 1 oxidation reaction are catalyzed by which of the following?

  1. FMOs
  2. GSTs
  3. CYPs
  4. NATs

Answer: (3) CYPs