UGC NET Exam July 2016 Forensic Science Paper-2 Question Paper with Answer Key

1. One of the major limitation of conventional light microscope is, shallow depth of the field, overcome by applying an adjustable beam of highly intense light to the area under illumination in:

(1) Confocal Microscope

(2) Laser Doppler Microscope

(3) Deepfield Microscope

(4) Ultraviolet Microscope

Answer:

(3) Deepfield Microscope

2. Aqua fortis is also known by:

(1) Sulphuric acid

(2) Hydrochloric acid

(3) Nitric acid

(4) Acetic acid

Answer:

(3) Nitric acid

3. To initiate explosion in non-sensitive high explosive, one can use:

(1) Booster

(2) Timer

(3) Missile

(4) Electrical Circuit

Answer:

(1) Booster

4. Large amount of urea is found in:

(1) Urine

(2) Feces

(3) Breast milk

(4) Vaginal secretions

Answer:

(1) Urine

5. Which matrix is best suited for analysis of fetal drug exposure?

(1) Saliva

(2) Urine

(3) Vomit

(4) Meconium

Answer:

(4) Meconium

6. By adding a few drops of Duquenois reagent followed by few drops of concentrated hydrochloric acid on dry cannabis herbal material gives characteristic effervescence due to:

(1) Δ9-tetrahydrocannabinol

(2) Cannabidiol

(3) Cystolithic hair

(4) Cocaine

Answer:

(3) Cystolithic hair

7. Assertion (A) : Telomere shortening is a potential method of age estimation.

Reason (R) : During cell-division telomeres shorten at the rate of 10 – 20 base pairs/cell division.

In the context of two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer:

(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

8. Which of the following is a sign of traced forgery?

(1) Uninked outlines

(2) Ghost lines of carbon

(3) Flying starts and terminals

(4) Both uninked lines and Ghost lines of carbon

Answer:

(4) Both uninked lines and Ghost lines of carbon

9. Spot test of RDX with thymol reagent gives the following colour:

(1) Green

(2) Blue

(3) Deep Red

(4) Brown

Answer:

(3) Deep Red

10. What is the initial action associated with explosion of a device fitted with time pencil?

(1) Pull

(2) Pressure

(3) Pressure release

(4) Tension release

Answer:

(2) Pressure

11. A person committed suicide by a revolver. In order to implicate his opponent, his son took the same revolver and fired a second shot at his father. But the post-mortem examination proved that the second shot was a post-mortem shot. Then his son admitted that he had himself fired the second shot to implicate his opponents. Which of the following principles of Forensic Science had helped in the determination of truth?

 (1) Principle of Analysis

 (2) Principle of Comparison

 (3) Principle of Individuality

 (4) ‘Facts do not lie, men can and do’

Answer:

 (4) ‘Facts do not lie, men can and do’

12. D13S317 and TPOX are:

(1) STR markers

(2) Types of viruses

(3) Regions of mt DNA

(4) Restriction enzymes

Answer:

(1) STR markers

13. When the Director, Dy. Director, Assistant Director of a Forensic Science Lab are summoned by a court, he may depute any officer conversant with the case. This provision is made under:

(1) Section 291, Cr P.C.

(2) Section 293 Cr. P.C.

(3) Section 295 Cr. P.C.

(4) Section 297 Cr. P.C.

Answer:

(2) Section 293 Cr. P.C.

14. In chromatography band broadening due to longitudinal diffusion resulting from random motion of the molecule inside column is known as:

(1) ‘A’ term

(2) ‘B’ term

(3) ‘C’ term

(4) ‘D’ term

Answer:

(2) ‘B’ term

15. Assertion (A) : NAA shows great sensitivity for many elements.

Reason (R) : Absolute sensitivities of detection in NAA does not depend on atomic weight of element, irradiation time and decay period.

 Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer:

(3) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

16. Pistols like the 9 mm Browning pistol are generally semi-automatic. In these pistols, which of the following is true at the instant of their firing?

(1) The bolt is not locked to the barrel during firing, then the fired cartridge case and bolt both move backwards for unloading and reloading.

(2) The bolt is locked to the barrel. First it gets unlocked from the barrel and then the fired cartridge case and bolt both move backwards for unloading and reloading.

(3) Bolt is locked to barrel. Both move backwards and get separated when the pressure in the cartridge case reduces to a safe value. Then the process of unloading and reloading takes place.

(4) Bolt is locked to barrel. Both move backwards to the full extent. Then the automatic mechanism of long recoil operation takes place.

Answer:

(3) Bolt is locked to barrel. Both move backwards and get separated when the pressure in the cartridge case reduces to a safe value. Then the process of unloading and reloading takes place.

17. Which one of the following group of pesticides are of plant origin?

(1) Carbonates

(2) Pyrethrin

(3) Triazines

(4) Phosphides

Answer:

(2) Pyrethrin

18. During absorption of drug in human body through passive diffusion, the rate of diffusion is determined by:

(1) Fick’s law

(2) Henry’s law

(3) Beer’s law

(4) Schanker’s law

Answer:

(1) Fick’s law

19. Benzimidazoles, Dithiocarbonates, Acylalanines are examples of:

(1) Rodenticides

(2) Herbicides

(3) Molluscicides

(4) Fungicides

Answer:

(4) Fungicides

20. The morphine content of opium is standardized in the Government Opium factory located at:

(1) Ghaziabad

(2) Gurgaon

(3) Ghazipur

(4) Gwalior

Answer:

(4) Gwalior

21. Which of these tests is used to detect fecal stain?

(1) Single-test-tube fluorimetry

(2) Edelman

(3) DNA

(4) Takayama

Answer:

(2) Edelman

22. Cathinone is an active constituent obtained from:

(1) Cannabis

(2) Cocaine

(3) Mushroom

(4) Khat

Answer:

(4) Khat

23. A military duplex bullet consist of:

(1) Two sharp point bullets, the rear one being canted

(2) Two soft-point bullets, the rear one being canted

(3) Two silver-tip bullets, the rear one being canted

(4) Front bullet is sharp pointed and the rear bullet is silver-tip canted bullet

Answer:

(1) Two sharp point bullets, the rear one being canted

24. Ossification centre in upper end of fibula appears at the age of:

(1) Birth

(2) 4 years

(3) 10 years

(4) 16 years

Answer:

(2) 4 years

25. Caspers’ dictum is used in relation to:

(1) Rigor Mortes

(2) P.M. Staining

(3) Putrefaction

(4) Mummification

Answer:

(3) Putrefaction

26. Which of these Immunoglobulins (Ig) fights infection in mucus membranes ?

(1) IgG

(2) IgM

(3) IgA

(4) IgD

Answer:

(3) IgA

27. A certain repetitive pattern of a criminals behaviour is called his:

(1) Probability

(2) Passion

(3) Corpus delicti

(4) Modus operandi

Answer:

(4) Modus operandi

28. Puranen’s test is used to detect:

(1) Semen

(2) Blood

(3) Tears

(4) Urine

Answer:

(1) Semen

29. Which of the following statement is true?

 Increasing the velocity of bullet results in:

(1) Increased air-resistance on bullet

(2) Increased yaw of bullet in its motion in air

(3) For its stability in flight, the pitch of rifling has to be reduced

(4) All the above

Answer:

(4) All the above

30. Age at which victim of rape can authorize press to publish her name and picture ?

(1) 12 years

(2) 16 years

(3) 18 years

(4) 21 years

Answer:

(3) 18 years

31. In chromatography very high number of theoretical plates can be achieved by using:

(1) Normal column

(2) Capillary column

(3) Thin layer

(4) ODS normal bore column

Answer:

(2) Capillary column

32. Match the following:

List-IList-II
a. Benzidinei. Green
b. O-Tolidineii. Fluorescence
c. Phenolphthaleiniii. Blue
d. Luminoliv. Pink

 Codes:

 abcd
1.iiiiivii
2.iviiiiii
3.iiiiiiiv
4.iiiiiiiv
Answer:

1.

33. In activation analysis, once the sample is activated using source of neutron, the sample is identified and quantified using:

(1) UV spectrometer

(2) Mass spectrometer

(3) Gamma ray spectrometer

(4) NMR

Answer:

(3) Gamma ray spectrometer

34. In a human mandible:

I. Symphysis menti is squarish in males.

II. Condyles are smaller in males.

III. Angle of body and ramus is < 125° in males.

IV. Breadth of acending ramus is lesser in males.

Codes:

(1) I, II and III are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and II are correct.

Answer:

(2) I and III are correct.

35. Regarding ossification of hyoid bone Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. Hyoid ossifies from 6 centres

II. Ossification in greater cornu begins at 10 lunar month of intrauterine life

III. Ossification in lesser cornu begins at 16 years

IV. Greater cornu never unite with the body of hyoid

Codes:

(1) I, II and III are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and II are correct.

Answer:

(1) I, II and III are correct.

36. Analysis of organic constituents of soil can be accomplished with the help of following instrumentation technique :

(1) AAS

(2) NAA

(3) HPLC

(4) SEM

Answer:

(3) HPLC

37. Sparkling wine contains a considerable amount of:

(1) Sugar

(2) Distilled alcohol

(3) Carbon dioxide

(4) Added flavanoids

Answer:

(3) Carbon dioxide

38. Which one of the following is used as a bittering agent in tonic water?

(1) Nicotine

(2) Morphine

(3) Quinine

(4) Ketamine

Answer:

(3) Quinine

39. Most screening tests for blood depend on the peroxidase activity of:

(1) Haem

(2) Antibody

(3) Urine

(4) Protein

Answer:

(1) Haem

40. HPLC using single piston reciprocating pump fitted with “Bourdon Coils” is used for/as:

(1) Sample injection

(2) Column

(3) Pulse dampener

(4) Flow controller

Answer:

(4) Flow controller

41. An antibody is produced by combining the target antigen with a carrier molecule. Such antigen is termed as:

(1) Antiserum

(2) Polyclonal mixture

(3) Immunoglobulins

(4) Hapten

Answer:

(4) Hapten

42. The main constituent of military dynamite is:

(1) Nitroglycerine

(2) Black powder

(3) RDX

(4) TNT

Answer:

(3) RDX

43. Earliest putrefactive change is:

(1) Marbling

(2) Greenish discoloration of right iliac fossa

(3) Colliquative putrefaction

(4) Post mortem blisters

Answer:

(2) Greenish discoloration of right iliac fossa

44. A cloud of brown crystals are formed in Florene test due to formation of:

(1) Choline periodide

(2) Potassium iodine

(3) Choline iodide

(4) Potassium periodide

Answer:

(1) Choline periodide

45. Which of the following is the earliest system of dental charting?

(1) Zsigmondy system

(2) Palmer system

(3) Navy notation

(4) Haderup notation

Answer:

(1) Zsigmondy system

46. The modern percussion – lock fire arms are the result of initial discoveries made by:

(1) Remington

(2) Smith & Wesson

(3) James Forsythe

(4) Webley & Scott

Answer:

(3) James Forsythe

47. Match the following:

List-IList-II
a. Ted Bundyi. Skull-photo superimposition
b. Buck Ruxtonii. DNA Fingerprinting
c. Kangali Charaniii. Fingerprints
d. Colin Pitchforkiv. Bite marks

Codes:

 abcd
1.iviiiiii
2.iiviiiii
3.iiiiiiiv
4.iiiiiiiv
Answer:

1.

48. The Locus-I, in PGM system are of great importance due to their higher degree of:

(1) Polymorphism

(2) Mobility

(3) Enzyme Contents

(4) Protein Contents

Answer:

(1) Polymorphism

49. Which of the following type of the sweat glands are found in ridged skin?

(1) Sebaceous glands

(2) Apocrine glands

(3) Eccrine glands

(4) Both Eccerine and Apocrine glands

Answer:

(3) Eccrine glands

50. Which of the following is the correct expanded form of the term ‘MSDS’?

(1) Medical Superintendent for Drug Safety

(2) Montreal Society for Drug Safety

(3) Material Safety Data Sheet

(4) Material Sorting and Distribution Sheet

Answer:

(3) Material Safety Data Sheet

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