UGC NET Exam Jan 2017 Forensic Science Paper-2 Question paper with Answer Key

1. A delusion in which the person feels that a close family member has been replaced by an identical looking stranger, is known as:

(1) Capgras syndrome

(2) Fregoli syndrome

(3) Syndrome of intermetamorphosis

(4) Clerambault syndrome

Answer:

(1) Capgras syndrome

2. Currens rule is used :

(1) To determine legal insanity

(2) To determine cause of death in infanticide

(3) To differentiate hanging from strangulation

(4) To differentiate true rape from consensual sexual intercourse.

Answer:

(1) To determine legal insanity

3. Tardieu’s spots are characteristic of:

(1) Burns

(2) Infanticide

(3) Electrocution

(4) Asphyxia

Answer:

(4) Asphyxia

4. Regarding head injury due to precipitate labour, consider the following statements:

I. Bruises may be seen on vertex

II. Extensive comminuted and depressed fractures of base of skull

III. Lacerations on scalp are absent

IV. Brain shows lacerations

Codes :

(1) I, II and III are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and II are correct.

Answer:

(2) I and III are correct.

5. Beneke’s technique is used during post-mortem to:

(1) Remove heart from infants

(2) Open skull in infants

(3) Remove enlarged prostate gland

(4) Open the body from back

Answer:

(2) Open skull in infants

6. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

List – I (Name of sexual perversion)List – II (Description)
I. EonismA. Displaying sexual organs
II. ExhibionismB. Having sex with dead
III. FrotteurismC. Having sex with animals
IV. NecrophiliaD. Rubbing sexual organs against others
 E. Wearing clothes of opposite sex


Codes :

 IIIIIIIV
1.EADB
2.DBAC
3.CABD
4.AECB
Answer:

1

7. Study the following statements and choose the right answer using the code given below:

I. Cadaveric spasm occurs in smooth muscles.

II. Cadaveric spasm occurs instantaneously.

III. Primary relaxation is not seen in cadaveric spasm.

IV. Muscle reaction is alkaline in cadaveric spasm.

Codes :

(1) II, III and IV are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) I, II and III are correct.

(4) II and IV are correct.

Answer:

(1) II, III and IV are correct.

8. A: Graphology should not be confused with forensic handwriting examination.

R: Graphology deals with study of personality traits of an individual from handwriting of the individual.

Codes:

(1) A is correct and R is incorrect.

(2) Both A and R are incorrect.

(3) Both A and R are correct.

(4) R is correct and A is incorrect.

Answer:

(3) Both A and R are correct.

9. A photographic process based on the formation of silver and an iron redox couple resulting the deposition of metal salts on latent finger print is known as which of the following ?

(1) Small particle reagent

(2) VMD method

(3) DFO

(4) Physical developer

Answer:

(4) Physical developer

10. Type lines may be defined as two innermost ridges running parallel in the beginning, diverge and surround or tend to surround which of the following ?

(1) Core

(2) Delta

(3) Pattern area

(4) Bifurcation

Answer:

(3) Pattern area

11. In 10 digit classification of finger-prints, a person having whorls pattern in all the ten fingers will be classified under which of the following ?

(1) 0/0

(2) 32/32

(3) 16/16

(4) 8/8

Answer:

(2) 32/32

12. Arrange the following epidermal layers in correct order :

I. Stratum granulosum

II. Stratum germinativum

III. Stratum Lucidum

IV. Stratum spinosum

Codes :

(1) II, IV, III, I

(2) III, I, IV, II

(3) I, IV, II, III

(4) IV, II, III, I

Answer:

(2) III, I, IV, II

13. Calculation of a person’s height from fragmented bones is calculated by:

(1) Dupertuis and Hadden’s formula

(2) Pearson’s formula

(3) Trotter and Glesser formula

(4) Steele and McKern’s formula

Answer:

(4) Steele and McKern’s formula

14. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

List-I (Embryonic development)List-II (Gestational period after conception)
I. Volar pads formA. 10-12 weeks
II. Volar pads begin to recedeB. 21st week
III. Skin ridges appearsC. 28th week
IV. Fingerprint pattern is completeD. 13th week
 E. 6-8 weeks

Codes :

 IIIIIIIV
1.ADEC
2.EADB
3.CDBA
4.BECA
Answer:

(2)

15. Shovel shaped teeth are seen in

(1) Bushmen

(2) Caucasoids

(3) Africans

(4) Mongoloids

Answer:

(4) Mongoloids

16. The approximate weight percent of SiO2 in borosilicate glass is :

(1) 40

(2) 50

(3) 60

(4) 80

Answer:

(4) 80

17. The term “hue” is associated with which of the following?

(1) Mineral constituent of the soil

(2) Base colour of the soil

(3) Texture of the soil

(4) Organic material present in soil

Answer:

(2) Base colour of the soil

18. Match the following:

List IList II Melting Point
A. Acetate fiberI. 245 – 260° C
B. Vinal fibersIi. Do not melt
C. Nylon 6 fiberIii. 210 – 230° C
D. Triacetate fiberIv. 200 – 260° C
E. Rayon fiberV. 288 – 300° C

Codes :

 ab cde
1.iviiviiii
2.iiviiivii
3.iiiiviiiv
4.viiviiiii
Answer:

(2)

19. Medullary index of hair is:

(1) Diameter of hair shaft /Diameter of medulla

(2) Circumference of hair shaft/Diameter of medulla

(3) Diameter of hair shaft/Circumference of hair shaft

(4) Diameter of medulla/Diameter of hair shaft

Answer:

(4) Diameter of medulla/Diameter of hair shaft

20. The major generic fiber used to prepare apparel which could be stretched as desired is:

(1) Aramid

(2) Melamine

(3) Rayon

(4) Spandex

Answer:

(4) Spandex

21. One Dalton is equal to which of the following?

(1) 1.66 × 109 kg

(2) 1.66 × 1027 kg

(3) 9.31 × 1027 kg

(4) 9.31 × 1031 kg

Answer:

(2) 1.66 × 1027 kg

22. Which of the following is not a result of rifiling?

(1) Increased speed

(2) Increased range

(3) Increased precision

(4) Increased yaw

Answer:

(4) Increased yaw

23. In recoil-operated firearms like a pistol, the automatic mechanism works because of:

(1) Force of recoil of firearm

(2) Force of recoil acting on the head of the cartridge case

(3) Force of recoil acting on the recoil plate of firearm

(4) Force of recoil acting on walls and neck of the cartridge case

Answer:

(2) Force of recoil acting on the head of the cartridge case

24. Which of the following is not a factor in measurement of recoil?

(1) Weight of gun and bullet

(2) Muzzle blast

(3) Gases formed inside the cartridge case

(4) All burnt point

Answer:

(4) All burnt point

25. Dhatura poisoning resembles with which of the following ?

(1) Kuchala poisoning

(2) Opium poisoning

(3) Atropine poisoning

(4) Rati poisoning

Answer:

(3) Atropine poisoning

26. Which one of the following is an active metabolite of chloral hydrate?

(1) Chlorpromazine

(2) Trichloroethanol

(3) Dexmedetomidine

(4) Methylphenidate

Answer:

(2) Trichloroethanol

27. Morphine dependence is best characterised by which of the following ?

(1) Constricted pupils

(2) Masked face

(3) Jaundice

(4) Anorexia

Answer:

(1) Constricted pupils

28. O – demethylation of oxycodone gives which of the following?

(1) Noroxycodone

(2) Deoxycodone

(3) Deoxymorphone

(4) Oxymorphone

Answer:

(4) Oxymorphone

29. Cocaine isomers can be separated by HPLC using:

(1) Non polar columns

(2) Polar columns

(3) Semi polar columns

(4) Chiral columns

Answer:

(1) Non polar columns

30. Which enzyme regulates the metabolism of opiates?

(1) SULT 2

(2) CYP 2D6

(3) COMT

(4) MT

Answer:

(2) CYP 2D6

31. Consumption of which of the following causes blindness?

(1) Amphetamine

(2) Morphine

(3) Atropine

(4) Methanol

Answer:

(4) Methanol

32. Methanol toxicity is due to the formation of which of the following?

(1) Formic acid due to the action of dehydrogenase enzyme in liver

(2) Formic acid due to the action of dehydrogenase enzyme in kidney

(3) Formic acid due to the action of protease enzyme in liver

(4) Formic acid due to the action of protease enzyme in kidney

Answer:

(1) Formic acid due to the action of dehydrogenase enzyme in liver

33. The most reliable test for detection of semen in the absence of spermatozoa is:

(1) Acid phosphate

(2) Prostate specific antigen

(3) Esterase

(4) Florence test

Answer:

(1) Acid phosphate

34. Which of the following is not a presumptive test for the detection of semen?

(1) Phenolphthalein test

(2) Microscopic examination

(3) The P30 test

(4) The acid phosphatase test

Answer:

(1) Phenolphthalein test

35. Dideoxynucleoside triphosphates (ddNTPs) are used in sequencing DNA because:

(1) dd NTPs are fluorescent.

(2) dd NTPs are incorporated very efficiently into DNA by DNA polymerase.

(3) dd NTPs cannot be incorporated into DNA by DNA polymerase.

(4) dd NTPs prevent further DNA synthesis once they are incorporated into the DNA sequence.

Answer:

(4) dd NTPs prevent further DNA synthesis once they are incorporated into the DNA sequence.

36. Assertion (A) : Erythrocyte helps in detection of fetal blood.

Reason (R) : It fights infection in foetus.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer:

(2) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.

37. The gene loci 1 of enzyme, PGM is of medico-legal importance, the reason being:

(1) Polymorphism

(2) Circular in shape

(3) Dark blue in colour

(4) Based on Mendelian law of inheritance

Answer:

(1) Polymorphism

38. Ultra – violet rays are known to damage DNA on its exposure due to:

(1) Breaking of bonds between G and C

(2) Formation of thymine-thymine dimers

(3) Formation of primer-dimer

(4) Extension of non-coding regions

Answer:

(2) Formation of thymine-thymine dimers

39. Consider following statements regarding amelogenin:

I. It can be used to differentiate sex.

II. Intron 1 in AMELX gene is 106 bp in size.

III. Using this technique sex can be determined from bone marrow.

IV. Amelogenin is a protein found in male genital system.

Codes:

(1) I, II and III are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and II are correct.

Answer:

(1) I, II and III are correct.

40. Which of these techniques is used to separate serum ?

(1) GLC

(2) HPLC

(3) Electrophoresis

(4) PCR

Answer:

(3) Electrophoresis

41. In PMT, the magnitude of signal is increased due to the action of:

(1) Vacuum

(2) Cathode

(3) Anode

(4) Dynode

Answer:

(4) Dynode

42. In flame atomization when the gas flow rate does not exceed the burning velocity the flame propagates back into the burner giving.

(1) Aerosol

(2) Atoms

(3) Secondary flame

(4) Flash back

Answer:

(4) Flash back

43. Name the microscope in which condenser is modified by replacing the substage iris with such a device which allows only a ring of light to pass through it.

(1) Phase contrast microscope

(2) Fluorescence microscope

(3) Stereo microscope

(4) Electron microscope

Answer:

(1) Phase contrast microscope

44. In a polarised light microscope a polarizer is placed:

(1) Below the objective

(2) Above the objective

(3) Below the sample

(4) Above the sample

Answer:

(3) Below the sample

45. In X RFS, filters are made up of which of the following ?

(1) Lead

(2) Aluminium

(3) Zerconium

(4) Beryllium

Answer:

(3) Zerconium

46. The forensic use of phadebas reagent was proposed by which of the following ?

(1) Alphonse Bertillon

(2) Willott

(3) Lee H.C.

(4) Jon J. Nordby

Answer:

(2) Willott

47. Grievous hurt as mentioned in Indian Law comprises all except:

(1) Emasculation

(2) Complete shaving of scalp hair

(3) Fracture or dislocation of bone or tooth

(4) Any hurt which endagers life.

Answer:

(2) Complete shaving of scalp hair

48. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

List-I (Type of Inquest)List-II (Country)
I. Police InquestA. USA
II. Coroner’s inquestB. India
III. Procurator Fiscal’s inquestC. Australia
IV. Medical Examiner systemD. Chile
 E. Scotland

Codes:

 IIIIIIIV
1.AEBC
2.EADB
3.DBEA
4.BCEA
Answer:

(4)

49. Section 326 A IPC deals with:

(1) Punishment for voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons.

(2) Criminal force.

(3) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid.

(4) Kidnapping

Answer:

(3) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid.

50. Section 354 B IPC deals with:

(1) Battered baby syndrome.

(2) Stalking.

(3) Assault or criminal force to woman with intent to disrobe or compelling her to be naked.

(4) Assault or criminal force to any human being with intent to disrobe or compelling to be naked.

Answer:

(3) Assault or criminal force to woman with intent to disrobe or compelling her to be naked.