UGC NET Exam Jan 2017 Forensic Science Paper-3 Question Paper With Answer Key

1. Smearing writing with a colour fluid to make original writing illegible is known as:

(1) Indentation

(2) Erasure

(3) Obliteration

(4) Charring

Answer: (3) Obliteration

2. Depo-Provera and Depo-Lupron are used as which of the following?

(1) Date-rape drug

(2) Truth Serum

(3) Doping agent

(4) Chemical castration agent

Answer: (4) Chemical castration agent

3. Which of the following detector is used in mass spectroscopy ?

(1) PMT

(2) Photon counting detector

(3) Gas ionization detector

(4) Electron multipliers

Answer: (4) Electron multipliers

4. A condition of prolonged transition from sleep to waking with partial alertness, disorientation, drowsiness, poor co-ordination and violent behaviour is known as:

(1) Somnambulism

(2) Fregoli Syndrome

(3) Fugue

(4) Somnolentia

Answer: (4) Somnolentia

5. Which of the following is Münchausen Syndrome by Proxy (MSbP)?

(1) Patient feigns illness in order to draw attention to himself.

(2) Person causes injury to his child in order to draw attention.

(3) Person has a psychiatric compulsion to kill his own child.

(4) Person gains sexual pleasure by whipping others.

Answer: (2) Person causes injury to his child in order to draw attention.

6. Which of the following is correctly matched?

List-I (Test of Lie detection)List-II (Associated fact)
I. Brain mappingA. Psychophysiological detection of deception
II. Truth serumB. Recovery of forgotten memories
III. Lie detectorC. 3-quinuclidinyl benzilate
IV. HypnosisD. Heroin
 E. Invented by Lawrence Farwell

Codes:

 IIIIIIIV
1.ACEB
2.ECAB
3.AEDC
4.BDEA

Answer: (2)

7. Assertion (A) : Caput succedaneum is a swelling that forms over neck region of the new born.

Reason (R) : Neck is the most frequent presenting part in normal deliveries.

 In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

 (1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

 (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

 (3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

 (4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

8. Simon sign is seen in which of the following:

(1) Traumatic asphyxia

(2) Hanging

(3) Strangulation

(4) Gagging

Answer: (2) Hanging

9. Differentiation of human and animal bone is most difficult with:

(1) Skull

(2) Pelvis

(3) Ear Ossicles

(4) Femur

Answer: (3) Ear Ossicles

10. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

List-I (Colour of PM Staining)List-II (Cause of death)
I. BlackA. Hydrogen sulphide
II. Bluish greenB. Hydrocyanic acid
III. Bright redC. Acetanilide
IV. ChocolateD. Opiates
 E. Phosphorus

Codes :

 IIIIIIIV
1.ACBE
2.BACD
3.DBCA
4.DABC

Answer: (4)

11. Baar’s technique is used during post-mortem.

(1) To remove eyes

(2) To excise testes

(3) To remove brain in infants

(4) To remove brain in adults

Answer: (3) To remove brain in infants

12. Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) The handwriting of an individual remains unaffected by advancing age.

(2) The handwriting is affected by space available for writing and may show variations.

(3) Alcohol consumption may cause variations in one’s handwriting.

(4) Handwriting of an individual shows natural variations.

Answer: (1) The handwriting of an individual remains unaffected by advancing age.

13. Grabber marks may be found in which of the following?

(1) Type written document

(2) Photocopied document

(3) Carbon copied document

(4) Printed document

Answer: (2) Photocopied document

14. Which of the following is considered responsible for individual characteristics in a photocopied document?

(1) Toner constituents

(2) Paper composition

(3) Accidental marks of the drum

(4) The font characteristics

Answer: (3) Accidental marks of the drum

15. Which of the following features may indicate towards forged signature ?

(1) Writing strokes with tapered endings.

(2) Writing strokes with tapered initials.

(3) Writing strokes with unusual pen lifts.

(4) Writing strokes with tapered starts and endings.

Answer: (3) Writing strokes with unusual pen lifts.

16. Inkjet and Laser printers fall in which of the following categories ?

(1) Impact printer

(2) Line printers

(3) Non-impact printer

(4) Page printer

Answer: (3) Non-impact printer

17. Patent finger marks are those chance prints which are:

(1) Visible by naked eyes

(2) Invisible by naked eye

(3) Needs a treatment to make them visible

(4) Deposited in materials like wax, putty etc.

Answer: (1) Visible by naked eyes

18. The latent finger print development reagent, ‘1, 8-diazafluoren-9-one’ is also known as which of the following?

(1) SPR

(2) DFO

(3) Ardrox

(4) VMD

Answer: (2) DFO

19. Friction ridge skin contains following of the components except:

(1) Eccrine glands

(2) Dermal papillae

(3) Sebaceous glands

(4) Germinative layer

Answer: (3) Sebaceous glands

20. Stack’s method deals with:

(1) Calculation of age from size and weight of incisors.

(2) Calculation of age from size and weight of molar.

(3) Estimation of sex from long bones of lower limbs.

(4) Estimation of race from teeth.

Answer: (1) Calculation of age from size and weight of incisors.

21. Consider following statements regarding ossification of hyoid bone

I. Hyoid bone fuses from 6 centres.

II. Ossification begins in greater Cornu at 10 lunar months of intrauterine life.

III. Ossification begin in body at 10 years.

IV. Ossification begins in lesser Cornu just after birth.

Codes :

(1) I, II and III are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and II are correct.

Answer: (4) I and II are correct.

22. Epiphyseal ossification centre at the lower end of radius appears radiologically at:

(1) Birth

(2) 2 years

(3) 8 years

(4) 18 years

Answer: (2) 2 years

23. Consider following regarding sex differences in human mandible.

 I. Symphysis mental is square in female.

 II. Height at the body of mandible at symphysis is greater in female.

 III. Angles are everted in the male.

 IV. Mental tubercle is large and prominent in male.

Codes :

(1) I, II and III are correct.

(2) I and III are correct.

(3) III and IV are correct.

(4) I and II are correct.

Answer: (3) III and IV are correct.

24. Which of the following method of personal identification was proved wrong in Will West case ?

(1) Skull-Photo super imposition

(2) Identity Kit

(3) Photo FIT

(4) Portrait Parle

Answer: (4) Portrait Parle

25. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

Codes :

 IIIIIIIV
1.AEBC
2.BDAC
3.EBCD
4.DCAB

Answer: (2)

26. With a tool having thick edge leaving tool marks, the pattern of striation changes with:

(1) Angle of progression

(2) Angle of tilt

(3) Pressure applied

(4) Force of application of the tool

Answer: (2) Angle of tilt

27. A tool having thin cutting edge, the spacing in between the striations shows change with:

(1) Angle of progression

(2) Angle of tilt

(3) Pressure applied

(4) Nature of surface acted upon

Answer: (1) Angle of progression

28. A highly specialized group of non oxide semiconductor glasses are also known as:

(1) Borosilicate glasses

(2) Alkali barium silicate glasses

(3) Phosphate glasses

(4) Chalcogenide glasses

Answer: (4) Chalcogenide glasses

29. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

List – I (Fetal Structure)List – II (Closure period)
I. Umbilical arteriesA. 3-5 days
II. Left umbilical veinB. 1 year
III. Ductus arteriosusC. 2-3 months
IV. Foramen ovaleD. 10 hours – 3 days
 E. 7 – 10 days

Codes :

 IIIIIIIV
1.EABD
2.DAEC
3.BADE
4.CEBA

Answer: (2)

30. Nucleated RBC disappear from fetal blood completely in:

(1) 24 hours

(2) 1 month

(3) 120 days

(4) 1 year

Answer: (1) 24 hours

31. Mohair fibre is placed under which of the following categories?

(1) Animal fibres

(2) Vegetable fibres

(3) Mineral fibres

(4) Man-made fibres

Answer: (1) Animal fibres

32. The term “trilobal, multi-lobed, flat, dumbbell” are associated with transverse cross-sectional shape of:

(1) Human hair

(2) Animal hair

(3) Fibre

(4) Glass

Answer: (3) Fibre

33. Which of the following statement is wrong for C-4?

(1) It is a mixture of RDX and PETN

(2) It is a plastic explosive

(3) It is used frequently for industrial purposes

(4) Used as a base charge in explosive trains

Answer: (2) It is a plastic explosive

34. Full form of TNT is

(1) 2, 4, 6 – trinitrotoluene

(2) 1, 3, 5 – trinitrotoluene

(3) 2, 2, 6 – trinitrotoluene

(4) 1, 4, 5 – trinitrotoluene

Answer: (1) 2, 4, 6 – trinitrotoluene

35. ·410 – Musket fires which of the following ?

(1) A spherical ball

(2) A ·410 bullet

(3) A Rotax

(4) A Rifled Sling

Answer: (1) A spherical ball

36. Which element around gunshot hole is tested by dithiooxamide test

(1) Copper

(2) Lead

(3) Tin

(4) Aluminium

Answer: (1) Copper

37. When a bullet recochets from an unyielding surface, then which of the following statement is true?

(1) The bullet travels close to the impacted surface.

(2) The bullet travels far away from the impacted surface.

(3) The bullet enters the surface.

(4) The bullet fragments after striking the surface.

Answer: (1) The bullet travels close to the impacted surface.

38. Which one is used for deaddiction of Heroin?

(1) Quinine

(2) Valium

(3) Ecstasy

(4) Methadone

Answer: (4) Methadone

39. TNT when reacts with potassium hydroxide in ethanol gives which of the following?

(1) Orange colour

(2) Purple colour

(3) Violet colour

(4) Yellow colour

Answer: (2) Purple colour

40. Which of the following is not an inducer of cytochrome P450 system ?

(1) Ethanol

(2) Morphine

(3) Imipramine

(4) Amphetamine

Answer: (4) Amphetamine

41. Ethylene glycol is metabolized to which of the following?

(1) Formic acid and Oxalic acid

(2) Oxalic acid and Malonic acid

(3) Malonic and Glyoxylic acid

(4) Formic acid and Malonic acid

Answer: (1) Formic acid and Oxalic acid

42. Which one of the following is used to prevent jet lag ?

(1) Diazepam

(2) Codeine

(3) Amitriptyline

(4) Melatonin

Answer: (4) Melatonin

43. Which of the following is an example of synthetic opioids?

(1) Morphine

(2) Mescaline

(3) Codeine

(4) Fentanyl

Answer: (4) Fentanyl

44. Which one of the following does not belong to benzyl isoquinoline series ?

(1) Papaverine

(2) Noscopine

(3) Narcine

(4) Thebaine

Answer: (4) Thebaine

45. Which of the following internal standard is used for quantitative analysis of cocaine by gas chromatography?

(1) Tricosane

(2) Lidocaine

(3) Procaine

(4) Allococaine

Answer: (1) Tricosane

46. Which of the following quality is indicated by octane number ?

(1) Ignition quality

(2) Storage quality

(3) Anti knocking quality

(4) Viscosity

Answer: (1) Ignition quality

47. Pristane and phytane are characteristic components of which of the following?

(1) Wax

(2) Kerosene

(3) Diesel

(4) Petrol

Answer: (3) Diesel

48. Assertion (A) : Alcohol gives energy but it is not considered a food.

Reason (R) : Alcohol does not have protein, vitamin or nutrients.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(3) (A) is correct, and (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.

Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

49. STR markers are presently preferred for forensic DNA analysis for the reasons given below, except:

(1) It is abundant in genome

(2) It is radioactive based

(3) It is highly amenable

(4) It is highly polymorphic

Answer: (2) It is radioactive based

50. Which of the following can give problem while performing grouping by ABO, MN system?

(1) Pseudo agglutination

(2) Temperature

(3) Stored antisera

(4) Stained cloth

Answer: (1) Pseudo agglutination

51. Which of the following is not a grievous hurt under Indian law ?

(1) Cutting off artificially constructed Penis.

(2) Cliteridectomy

(3) Retinal detachment

(4) Bleeding of 200 ml

Answer: (4) Bleeding of 200 ml

52. Which of the following tests is not a catalytic colour test for blood stain?

(1) Teichman’s test

(2) O-toulidine test

(3) Tetramethyl benzidine

(4) Adler’s test

Answer: (1) Teichman’s test

53. These markers help in determining disputed paternity between father and son, except:

(1) Y-STR

(2) Autosomal DNA

(3) Mt. DNA

(4) ABO grouping

Answer: (3) Mt. DNA

54. _____ is used for the detection of ESD-isoenzyme pattern.

(1) Fluorogenic substrate

(2) Phenopthalein solution

(3) Tris-EDTA

(4) O-toulidine

Answer: (1) Fluorogenic substrate

55. What is the natural function of restriction enzymes?

(1) Protecting bacteria by cleaving the DNA of infecting viruses.

(2) Protecting bacteria by cleaving their own DNA.

(3) Protecting bacteria by methylating their own DNA.

(4) Protecting bacteria by methylating the DNA of infecting viruses.

Answer: (1) Protecting bacteria by cleaving the DNA of infecting viruses.

56. Assertion (A): The DNA typing is possible with the urine sample.

Reason (R): Urine samples contain cellular components.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

57. If both biological parents have AB blood group, which of these blood group is not possible in offsprings?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) AB

(4) O

Answer: (4) O

58. Assertion (A) : The distributions of the phenotypes for glyoxylase-1 (GLO-1) marker in each racial group are found in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Reason (R) : GLO-1 is inherited genetically from the biological parents.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

(2) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (2) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

59. Disputed paternity can be resolved, based on one of these.

(1) Hardy-Weinberg principle.

(2) Locards principle of exchange.

(3) Casper’s formula

(4) Nysten’s law

Answer: (1) Hardy-Weinberg principle.

60. Which of the following technique is not a molecular spectroscopy?

(1) Emission spectroscopy

(2) UV spectroscopy

(3) VIS spectroscopy

(4) IR spectroscopy

Answer: (1) Emission spectroscopy

61. Velocity forms the basis of separation in which of the following analyser?

(1) Time of flight analyser

(2) Ion trap analyser

(3) Quadruple analyser

(4) Orbitrap analyser

Answer: (1) Time of flight analyser

62. Which of the following element is used in plasma desorption ?

(1) Uranium

(2) Thorium

(3) Californium

(4) Polonium

Answer: (3) Californium

63. Which of the following is the principle behind gas solid chromatography?

(1) Langmuir Phenomenon

(2) Le Duce Phenomenon

(3) Henry’s Law

(4) Piobert’s Law

Answer: (1) Langmuir Phenomenon

64. Heroin is easily separated from its cutting agents by

(1) TLC

(2) UV spectrophotometry

(3) Visible spectrophotometry

(4) Polarography

Answer: (1) TLC

65. Among the under mention, which one of the following is normally used as a RPLC column?

(1) 5 cm length, 0.46 mm i.d., 0.5 micron particle size

(2) 25 cm length, 4.6 mm i.d., 5 micron particle size

(3) 250 mm length, 4.6 mm i.d., 5 micron particle size

(4) 250 cm length, 4.6 cm i.d., 5 mm particle size

Answer: (3) 250 mm length, 4.6 mm i.d., 5 micron particle size

66. In Gas-chromatography, zero air is used in which of the following detector ?

(1) ECD

(2) TCD

(3) FID

(4) PID

Answer: (3) FID

67. Which type of microscope uses excitation and barrier filters?

(1) Phase Contrast Microscope

(2) Fluorescence Microscope

(3) Stereo Microscope

(4) Electron Microscope

Answer: (2) Fluorescence Microscope

68. In XRFS, electrons are ejected from

(1) Outer shell

(2) Penultimate shell

(3) Inner penultimate shell

(4) Inner shell

Answer: (4) Inner shell

69. Which of the following methods of searching the crime scene is considered most effective?

(1) Spiral

(2) Quadrant

(3) Grid

(4) Wheel

Answer: (3) Grid

70. Which of the following is the least reliable source of evidence ?

(1) DNA

(2) Finger prints

(3) Eye witness

(4) Blood

Answer: (3) Eye witness

71. Which of the following items should be available for crime scene security ?

(1) Scale

(2) Camera

(3) Tweezers and forceps

(4) Crime scene barrier tape

Answer: (4) Crime scene barrier tape

72. Match the author with the book they authored.

a. D. Elleni. Psychologist as expert witness
b. J. Bodziakii. An Introduction to criminalistics
c. Kirk P.L.iii. The Scientific examination of Documents: Methods & techniques.
d. O’Hara & Osterbergiv. Foot wear impression evidence.
 v. Crime Investigation

Codes :

 abcd
1.iiiivvii
2.iiviiii
3.iviiiiii
4.iiiiiiiv

Answer: (1)

73. Who was the famous physician and botanist to identify digitalis?

(1) William Withering

(2) Friedrich Gaedche

(3) William Herschel

(4) C.R. Alder Wright

Answer: (1) William Withering

74. Most superior form of inquest is

(1) Police inquest

(2) Magistrates’ inquest

(3) Medical examiner system

(4) Coroner’s inquest

Answer: (3) Medical examiner system

75. Which one of the following codes is correctly matched?

List – I (Injury and Motivation)List – II (Section of IPC)
I. Causing hurt to extort property.A. Section 334
II. Causing grievous hurt to extort confession.B. Section 335
III. Causing hurt to deter public servant from duty.C. Section 327
IV. Causing grievous hurt on being provoked.D. Section 331
 E. Section 332

Codes :

 IIIIIIIV
1.ACBD
2.CDEB
3.BCDA
4.DBAC

Answer: (2)