1. Smearing writing with a colour fluid to make original writing illegible is known as:
(1) Indentation
(2) Erasure
(3) Obliteration
(4) Charring
Answer: (3) Obliteration
2. Depo-Provera and Depo-Lupron are used as which of the following?
(1) Date-rape drug
(2) Truth Serum
(3) Doping agent
(4) Chemical castration agent
Answer: (4) Chemical castration agent
3. Which of the following detector is used in mass spectroscopy ?
(1) PMT
(2) Photon counting detector
(3) Gas ionization detector
(4) Electron multipliers
Answer: (4) Electron multipliers
4. A condition of prolonged transition from sleep to waking with partial alertness, disorientation, drowsiness, poor co-ordination and violent behaviour is known as:
(1) Somnambulism
(2) Fregoli Syndrome
(3) Fugue
(4) Somnolentia
Answer: (4) Somnolentia
5. Which of the following is Münchausen Syndrome by Proxy (MSbP)?
(1) Patient feigns illness in order to draw attention to himself.
(2) Person causes injury to his child in order to draw attention.
(3) Person has a psychiatric compulsion to kill his own child.
(4) Person gains sexual pleasure by whipping others.
Answer: (2) Person causes injury to his child in order to draw attention.
6. Which of the following is correctly matched?
| List-I (Test of Lie detection) | List-II (Associated fact) |
| I. Brain mapping | A. Psychophysiological detection of deception |
| II. Truth serum | B. Recovery of forgotten memories |
| III. Lie detector | C. 3-quinuclidinyl benzilate |
| IV. Hypnosis | D. Heroin |
| E. Invented by Lawrence Farwell |
Codes:
| I | II | III | IV | |
| 1. | A | C | E | B |
| 2. | E | C | A | B |
| 3. | A | E | D | C |
| 4. | B | D | E | A |
Answer: (2)
7. Assertion (A) : Caput succedaneum is a swelling that forms over neck region of the new born.
Reason (R) : Neck is the most frequent presenting part in normal deliveries.
In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(1) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer: (4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
8. Simon sign is seen in which of the following:
(1) Traumatic asphyxia
(2) Hanging
(3) Strangulation
(4) Gagging
Answer: (2) Hanging
9. Differentiation of human and animal bone is most difficult with:
(1) Skull
(2) Pelvis
(3) Ear Ossicles
(4) Femur
Answer: (3) Ear Ossicles
10. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
| List-I (Colour of PM Staining) | List-II (Cause of death) |
| I. Black | A. Hydrogen sulphide |
| II. Bluish green | B. Hydrocyanic acid |
| III. Bright red | C. Acetanilide |
| IV. Chocolate | D. Opiates |
| E. Phosphorus |
Codes :
| I | II | III | IV | |
| 1. | A | C | B | E |
| 2. | B | A | C | D |
| 3. | D | B | C | A |
| 4. | D | A | B | C |
Answer: (4)
11. Baar’s technique is used during post-mortem.
(1) To remove eyes
(2) To excise testes
(3) To remove brain in infants
(4) To remove brain in adults
Answer: (3) To remove brain in infants
12. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(1) The handwriting of an individual remains unaffected by advancing age.
(2) The handwriting is affected by space available for writing and may show variations.
(3) Alcohol consumption may cause variations in one’s handwriting.
(4) Handwriting of an individual shows natural variations.
Answer: (1) The handwriting of an individual remains unaffected by advancing age.
13. Grabber marks may be found in which of the following?
(1) Type written document
(2) Photocopied document
(3) Carbon copied document
(4) Printed document
Answer: (2) Photocopied document
14. Which of the following is considered responsible for individual characteristics in a photocopied document?
(1) Toner constituents
(2) Paper composition
(3) Accidental marks of the drum
(4) The font characteristics
Answer: (3) Accidental marks of the drum
15. Which of the following features may indicate towards forged signature ?
(1) Writing strokes with tapered endings.
(2) Writing strokes with tapered initials.
(3) Writing strokes with unusual pen lifts.
(4) Writing strokes with tapered starts and endings.
Answer: (3) Writing strokes with unusual pen lifts.
16. Inkjet and Laser printers fall in which of the following categories ?
(1) Impact printer
(2) Line printers
(3) Non-impact printer
(4) Page printer
Answer: (3) Non-impact printer
17. Patent finger marks are those chance prints which are:
(1) Visible by naked eyes
(2) Invisible by naked eye
(3) Needs a treatment to make them visible
(4) Deposited in materials like wax, putty etc.
Answer: (1) Visible by naked eyes
18. The latent finger print development reagent, ‘1, 8-diazafluoren-9-one’ is also known as which of the following?
(1) SPR
(2) DFO
(3) Ardrox
(4) VMD
Answer: (2) DFO
19. Friction ridge skin contains following of the components except:
(1) Eccrine glands
(2) Dermal papillae
(3) Sebaceous glands
(4) Germinative layer
Answer: (3) Sebaceous glands
20. Stack’s method deals with:
(1) Calculation of age from size and weight of incisors.
(2) Calculation of age from size and weight of molar.
(3) Estimation of sex from long bones of lower limbs.
(4) Estimation of race from teeth.
Answer: (1) Calculation of age from size and weight of incisors.
21. Consider following statements regarding ossification of hyoid bone
I. Hyoid bone fuses from 6 centres.
II. Ossification begins in greater Cornu at 10 lunar months of intrauterine life.
III. Ossification begin in body at 10 years.
IV. Ossification begins in lesser Cornu just after birth.
Codes :
(1) I, II and III are correct.
(2) I and III are correct.
(3) III and IV are correct.
(4) I and II are correct.
Answer: (4) I and II are correct.
22. Epiphyseal ossification centre at the lower end of radius appears radiologically at:
(1) Birth
(2) 2 years
(3) 8 years
(4) 18 years
Answer: (2) 2 years
23. Consider following regarding sex differences in human mandible.
I. Symphysis mental is square in female.
II. Height at the body of mandible at symphysis is greater in female.
III. Angles are everted in the male.
IV. Mental tubercle is large and prominent in male.
Codes :
(1) I, II and III are correct.
(2) I and III are correct.
(3) III and IV are correct.
(4) I and II are correct.
Answer: (3) III and IV are correct.
24. Which of the following method of personal identification was proved wrong in Will West case ?
(1) Skull-Photo super imposition
(2) Identity Kit
(3) Photo FIT
(4) Portrait Parle
Answer: (4) Portrait Parle
25. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Codes :
| I | II | III | IV | |
| 1. | A | E | B | C |
| 2. | B | D | A | C |
| 3. | E | B | C | D |
| 4. | D | C | A | B |
Answer: (2)
26. With a tool having thick edge leaving tool marks, the pattern of striation changes with:
(1) Angle of progression
(2) Angle of tilt
(3) Pressure applied
(4) Force of application of the tool
Answer: (2) Angle of tilt
27. A tool having thin cutting edge, the spacing in between the striations shows change with:
(1) Angle of progression
(2) Angle of tilt
(3) Pressure applied
(4) Nature of surface acted upon
Answer: (1) Angle of progression
28. A highly specialized group of non oxide semiconductor glasses are also known as:
(1) Borosilicate glasses
(2) Alkali barium silicate glasses
(3) Phosphate glasses
(4) Chalcogenide glasses
Answer: (4) Chalcogenide glasses
29. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
| List – I (Fetal Structure) | List – II (Closure period) |
| I. Umbilical arteries | A. 3-5 days |
| II. Left umbilical vein | B. 1 year |
| III. Ductus arteriosus | C. 2-3 months |
| IV. Foramen ovale | D. 10 hours – 3 days |
| E. 7 – 10 days |
Codes :
| I | II | III | IV | |
| 1. | E | A | B | D |
| 2. | D | A | E | C |
| 3. | B | A | D | E |
| 4. | C | E | B | A |
Answer: (2)
30. Nucleated RBC disappear from fetal blood completely in:
(1) 24 hours
(2) 1 month
(3) 120 days
(4) 1 year
Answer: (1) 24 hours
31. Mohair fibre is placed under which of the following categories?
(1) Animal fibres
(2) Vegetable fibres
(3) Mineral fibres
(4) Man-made fibres
Answer: (1) Animal fibres
32. The term “trilobal, multi-lobed, flat, dumbbell” are associated with transverse cross-sectional shape of:
(1) Human hair
(2) Animal hair
(3) Fibre
(4) Glass
Answer: (3) Fibre
33. Which of the following statement is wrong for C-4?
(1) It is a mixture of RDX and PETN
(2) It is a plastic explosive
(3) It is used frequently for industrial purposes
(4) Used as a base charge in explosive trains
Answer: (2) It is a plastic explosive
34. Full form of TNT is
(1) 2, 4, 6 – trinitrotoluene
(2) 1, 3, 5 – trinitrotoluene
(3) 2, 2, 6 – trinitrotoluene
(4) 1, 4, 5 – trinitrotoluene
Answer: (1) 2, 4, 6 – trinitrotoluene
35. ·410 – Musket fires which of the following ?
(1) A spherical ball
(2) A ·410 bullet
(3) A Rotax
(4) A Rifled Sling
Answer: (1) A spherical ball
36. Which element around gunshot hole is tested by dithiooxamide test
(1) Copper
(2) Lead
(3) Tin
(4) Aluminium
Answer: (1) Copper
37. When a bullet recochets from an unyielding surface, then which of the following statement is true?
(1) The bullet travels close to the impacted surface.
(2) The bullet travels far away from the impacted surface.
(3) The bullet enters the surface.
(4) The bullet fragments after striking the surface.
Answer: (1) The bullet travels close to the impacted surface.
38. Which one is used for deaddiction of Heroin?
(1) Quinine
(2) Valium
(3) Ecstasy
(4) Methadone
Answer: (4) Methadone
39. TNT when reacts with potassium hydroxide in ethanol gives which of the following?
(1) Orange colour
(2) Purple colour
(3) Violet colour
(4) Yellow colour
Answer: (2) Purple colour
40. Which of the following is not an inducer of cytochrome P450 system ?
(1) Ethanol
(2) Morphine
(3) Imipramine
(4) Amphetamine
Answer: (4) Amphetamine
41. Ethylene glycol is metabolized to which of the following?
(1) Formic acid and Oxalic acid
(2) Oxalic acid and Malonic acid
(3) Malonic and Glyoxylic acid
(4) Formic acid and Malonic acid
Answer: (1) Formic acid and Oxalic acid
42. Which one of the following is used to prevent jet lag ?
(1) Diazepam
(2) Codeine
(3) Amitriptyline
(4) Melatonin
Answer: (4) Melatonin
43. Which of the following is an example of synthetic opioids?
(1) Morphine
(2) Mescaline
(3) Codeine
(4) Fentanyl
Answer: (4) Fentanyl
44. Which one of the following does not belong to benzyl isoquinoline series ?
(1) Papaverine
(2) Noscopine
(3) Narcine
(4) Thebaine
Answer: (4) Thebaine
45. Which of the following internal standard is used for quantitative analysis of cocaine by gas chromatography?
(1) Tricosane
(2) Lidocaine
(3) Procaine
(4) Allococaine
Answer: (1) Tricosane
46. Which of the following quality is indicated by octane number ?
(1) Ignition quality
(2) Storage quality
(3) Anti knocking quality
(4) Viscosity
Answer: (1) Ignition quality
47. Pristane and phytane are characteristic components of which of the following?
(1) Wax
(2) Kerosene
(3) Diesel
(4) Petrol
Answer: (3) Diesel
48. Assertion (A) : Alcohol gives energy but it is not considered a food.
Reason (R) : Alcohol does not have protein, vitamin or nutrients.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(3) (A) is correct, and (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
49. STR markers are presently preferred for forensic DNA analysis for the reasons given below, except:
(1) It is abundant in genome
(2) It is radioactive based
(3) It is highly amenable
(4) It is highly polymorphic
Answer: (2) It is radioactive based
50. Which of the following can give problem while performing grouping by ABO, MN system?
(1) Pseudo agglutination
(2) Temperature
(3) Stored antisera
(4) Stained cloth
Answer: (1) Pseudo agglutination
51. Which of the following is not a grievous hurt under Indian law ?
(1) Cutting off artificially constructed Penis.
(2) Cliteridectomy
(3) Retinal detachment
(4) Bleeding of 200 ml
Answer: (4) Bleeding of 200 ml
52. Which of the following tests is not a catalytic colour test for blood stain?
(1) Teichman’s test
(2) O-toulidine test
(3) Tetramethyl benzidine
(4) Adler’s test
Answer: (1) Teichman’s test
53. These markers help in determining disputed paternity between father and son, except:
(1) Y-STR
(2) Autosomal DNA
(3) Mt. DNA
(4) ABO grouping
Answer: (3) Mt. DNA
54. _____ is used for the detection of ESD-isoenzyme pattern.
(1) Fluorogenic substrate
(2) Phenopthalein solution
(3) Tris-EDTA
(4) O-toulidine
Answer: (1) Fluorogenic substrate
55. What is the natural function of restriction enzymes?
(1) Protecting bacteria by cleaving the DNA of infecting viruses.
(2) Protecting bacteria by cleaving their own DNA.
(3) Protecting bacteria by methylating their own DNA.
(4) Protecting bacteria by methylating the DNA of infecting viruses.
Answer: (1) Protecting bacteria by cleaving the DNA of infecting viruses.
56. Assertion (A): The DNA typing is possible with the urine sample.
Reason (R): Urine samples contain cellular components.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(2) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
57. If both biological parents have AB blood group, which of these blood group is not possible in offsprings?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) AB
(4) O
Answer: (4) O
58. Assertion (A) : The distributions of the phenotypes for glyoxylase-1 (GLO-1) marker in each racial group are found in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Reason (R) : GLO-1 is inherited genetically from the biological parents.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(2) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer: (2) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
59. Disputed paternity can be resolved, based on one of these.
(1) Hardy-Weinberg principle.
(2) Locards principle of exchange.
(3) Casper’s formula
(4) Nysten’s law
Answer: (1) Hardy-Weinberg principle.
60. Which of the following technique is not a molecular spectroscopy?
(1) Emission spectroscopy
(2) UV spectroscopy
(3) VIS spectroscopy
(4) IR spectroscopy
Answer: (1) Emission spectroscopy
61. Velocity forms the basis of separation in which of the following analyser?
(1) Time of flight analyser
(2) Ion trap analyser
(3) Quadruple analyser
(4) Orbitrap analyser
Answer: (1) Time of flight analyser
62. Which of the following element is used in plasma desorption ?
(1) Uranium
(2) Thorium
(3) Californium
(4) Polonium
Answer: (3) Californium
63. Which of the following is the principle behind gas solid chromatography?
(1) Langmuir Phenomenon
(2) Le Duce Phenomenon
(3) Henry’s Law
(4) Piobert’s Law
Answer: (1) Langmuir Phenomenon
64. Heroin is easily separated from its cutting agents by
(1) TLC
(2) UV spectrophotometry
(3) Visible spectrophotometry
(4) Polarography
Answer: (1) TLC
65. Among the under mention, which one of the following is normally used as a RPLC column?
(1) 5 cm length, 0.46 mm i.d., 0.5 micron particle size
(2) 25 cm length, 4.6 mm i.d., 5 micron particle size
(3) 250 mm length, 4.6 mm i.d., 5 micron particle size
(4) 250 cm length, 4.6 cm i.d., 5 mm particle size
Answer: (3) 250 mm length, 4.6 mm i.d., 5 micron particle size
66. In Gas-chromatography, zero air is used in which of the following detector ?
(1) ECD
(2) TCD
(3) FID
(4) PID
Answer: (3) FID
67. Which type of microscope uses excitation and barrier filters?
(1) Phase Contrast Microscope
(2) Fluorescence Microscope
(3) Stereo Microscope
(4) Electron Microscope
Answer: (2) Fluorescence Microscope
68. In XRFS, electrons are ejected from
(1) Outer shell
(2) Penultimate shell
(3) Inner penultimate shell
(4) Inner shell
Answer: (4) Inner shell
69. Which of the following methods of searching the crime scene is considered most effective?
(1) Spiral
(2) Quadrant
(3) Grid
(4) Wheel
Answer: (3) Grid
70. Which of the following is the least reliable source of evidence ?
(1) DNA
(2) Finger prints
(3) Eye witness
(4) Blood
Answer: (3) Eye witness
71. Which of the following items should be available for crime scene security ?
(1) Scale
(2) Camera
(3) Tweezers and forceps
(4) Crime scene barrier tape
Answer: (4) Crime scene barrier tape
72. Match the author with the book they authored.
| a. D. Ellen | i. Psychologist as expert witness |
| b. J. Bodziak | ii. An Introduction to criminalistics |
| c. Kirk P.L. | iii. The Scientific examination of Documents: Methods & techniques. |
| d. O’Hara & Osterberg | iv. Foot wear impression evidence. |
| v. Crime Investigation |
Codes :
| a | b | c | d | |
| 1. | iii | iv | v | ii |
| 2. | ii | v | iii | i |
| 3. | iv | ii | i | iii |
| 4. | i | ii | iii | iv |
Answer: (1)
73. Who was the famous physician and botanist to identify digitalis?
(1) William Withering
(2) Friedrich Gaedche
(3) William Herschel
(4) C.R. Alder Wright
Answer: (1) William Withering
74. Most superior form of inquest is
(1) Police inquest
(2) Magistrates’ inquest
(3) Medical examiner system
(4) Coroner’s inquest
Answer: (3) Medical examiner system
75. Which one of the following codes is correctly matched?
| List – I (Injury and Motivation) | List – II (Section of IPC) |
| I. Causing hurt to extort property. | A. Section 334 |
| II. Causing grievous hurt to extort confession. | B. Section 335 |
| III. Causing hurt to deter public servant from duty. | C. Section 327 |
| IV. Causing grievous hurt on being provoked. | D. Section 331 |
| E. Section 332 |
Codes :
| I | II | III | IV | |
| 1. | A | C | B | D |
| 2. | C | D | E | B |
| 3. | B | C | D | A |
| 4. | D | B | A | C |
Answer: (2)
