1. A delusion in which the person feels that a close family member has been replaced by an identical looking stranger, is known as:
(1) Capgras syndrome
(2) Fregoli syndrome
(3) Syndrome of intermetamorphosis
(4) Clerambault syndrome
Answer:
(1) Capgras syndrome
2. Currens rule is used :
(1) To determine legal insanity
(2) To determine cause of death in infanticide
(3) To differentiate hanging from strangulation
(4) To differentiate true rape from consensual sexual intercourse.
Answer:
(1) To determine legal insanity
3. Tardieu’s spots are characteristic of:
(1) Burns
(2) Infanticide
(3) Electrocution
(4) Asphyxia
Answer:
(4) Asphyxia
4. Regarding head injury due to precipitate labour, consider the following statements:
I. Bruises may be seen on vertex
II. Extensive comminuted and depressed fractures of base of skull
III. Lacerations on scalp are absent
IV. Brain shows lacerations
Codes :
(1) I, II and III are correct.
(2) I and III are correct.
(3) III and IV are correct.
(4) I and II are correct.
Answer:
(2) I and III are correct.
5. Beneke’s technique is used during post-mortem to:
(1) Remove heart from infants
(2) Open skull in infants
(3) Remove enlarged prostate gland
(4) Open the body from back
Answer:
(2) Open skull in infants
6. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
List – I (Name of sexual perversion) | List – II (Description) |
I. Eonism | A. Displaying sexual organs |
II. Exhibionism | B. Having sex with dead |
III. Frotteurism | C. Having sex with animals |
IV. Necrophilia | D. Rubbing sexual organs against others |
E. Wearing clothes of opposite sex |
Codes :
I | II | III | IV | |
1. | E | A | D | B |
2. | D | B | A | C |
3. | C | A | B | D |
4. | A | E | C | B |
Answer:
1
7. Study the following statements and choose the right answer using the code given below:
I. Cadaveric spasm occurs in smooth muscles.
II. Cadaveric spasm occurs instantaneously.
III. Primary relaxation is not seen in cadaveric spasm.
IV. Muscle reaction is alkaline in cadaveric spasm.
Codes :
(1) II, III and IV are correct.
(2) I and III are correct.
(3) I, II and III are correct.
(4) II and IV are correct.
Answer:
(1) II, III and IV are correct.
8. A: Graphology should not be confused with forensic handwriting examination.
R: Graphology deals with study of personality traits of an individual from handwriting of the individual.
Codes:
(1) A is correct and R is incorrect.
(2) Both A and R are incorrect.
(3) Both A and R are correct.
(4) R is correct and A is incorrect.
Answer:
(3) Both A and R are correct.
9. A photographic process based on the formation of silver and an iron redox couple resulting the deposition of metal salts on latent finger print is known as which of the following ?
(1) Small particle reagent
(2) VMD method
(3) DFO
(4) Physical developer
Answer:
(4) Physical developer
10. Type lines may be defined as two innermost ridges running parallel in the beginning, diverge and surround or tend to surround which of the following ?
(1) Core
(2) Delta
(3) Pattern area
(4) Bifurcation
Answer:
(3) Pattern area
11. In 10 digit classification of finger-prints, a person having whorls pattern in all the ten fingers will be classified under which of the following ?
(1) 0/0
(2) 32/32
(3) 16/16
(4) 8/8
Answer:
(2) 32/32
12. Arrange the following epidermal layers in correct order :
I. Stratum granulosum
II. Stratum germinativum
III. Stratum Lucidum
IV. Stratum spinosum
Codes :
(1) II, IV, III, I
(2) III, I, IV, II
(3) I, IV, II, III
(4) IV, II, III, I
Answer:
(2) III, I, IV, II
13. Calculation of a person’s height from fragmented bones is calculated by:
(1) Dupertuis and Hadden’s formula
(2) Pearson’s formula
(3) Trotter and Glesser formula
(4) Steele and McKern’s formula
Answer:
(4) Steele and McKern’s formula
14. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
List-I (Embryonic development) | List-II (Gestational period after conception) |
I. Volar pads form | A. 10-12 weeks |
II. Volar pads begin to recede | B. 21st week |
III. Skin ridges appears | C. 28th week |
IV. Fingerprint pattern is complete | D. 13th week |
E. 6-8 weeks |
Codes :
I | II | III | IV | |
1. | A | D | E | C |
2. | E | A | D | B |
3. | C | D | B | A |
4. | B | E | C | A |
Answer:
(2)
15. Shovel shaped teeth are seen in
(1) Bushmen
(2) Caucasoids
(3) Africans
(4) Mongoloids
Answer:
(4) Mongoloids
16. The approximate weight percent of SiO2 in borosilicate glass is :
(1) 40
(2) 50
(3) 60
(4) 80
Answer:
(4) 80
17. The term “hue” is associated with which of the following?
(1) Mineral constituent of the soil
(2) Base colour of the soil
(3) Texture of the soil
(4) Organic material present in soil
Answer:
(2) Base colour of the soil
18. Match the following:
List I | List II Melting Point |
A. Acetate fiber | I. 245 – 260° C |
B. Vinal fibers | Ii. Do not melt |
C. Nylon 6 fiber | Iii. 210 – 230° C |
D. Triacetate fiber | Iv. 200 – 260° C |
E. Rayon fiber | V. 288 – 300° C |
Codes :
a | b | c | d | e | |
1. | iv | ii | v | i | iii |
2. | i | iv | iii | v | ii |
3. | i | ii | iv | iii | v |
4. | v | i | iv | ii | iii |
Answer:
(2)
19. Medullary index of hair is:
(1) Diameter of hair shaft /Diameter of medulla
(2) Circumference of hair shaft/Diameter of medulla
(3) Diameter of hair shaft/Circumference of hair shaft
(4) Diameter of medulla/Diameter of hair shaft
Answer:
(4) Diameter of medulla/Diameter of hair shaft
20. The major generic fiber used to prepare apparel which could be stretched as desired is:
(1) Aramid
(2) Melamine
(3) Rayon
(4) Spandex
Answer:
(4) Spandex
21. One Dalton is equal to which of the following?
(1) 1.66 × 109 kg
(2) 1.66 × 1027 kg
(3) 9.31 × 1027 kg
(4) 9.31 × 1031 kg
Answer:
(2) 1.66 × 1027 kg
22. Which of the following is not a result of rifiling?
(1) Increased speed
(2) Increased range
(3) Increased precision
(4) Increased yaw
Answer:
(4) Increased yaw
23. In recoil-operated firearms like a pistol, the automatic mechanism works because of:
(1) Force of recoil of firearm
(2) Force of recoil acting on the head of the cartridge case
(3) Force of recoil acting on the recoil plate of firearm
(4) Force of recoil acting on walls and neck of the cartridge case
Answer:
(2) Force of recoil acting on the head of the cartridge case
24. Which of the following is not a factor in measurement of recoil?
(1) Weight of gun and bullet
(2) Muzzle blast
(3) Gases formed inside the cartridge case
(4) All burnt point
Answer:
(4) All burnt point
25. Dhatura poisoning resembles with which of the following ?
(1) Kuchala poisoning
(2) Opium poisoning
(3) Atropine poisoning
(4) Rati poisoning
Answer:
(3) Atropine poisoning
26. Which one of the following is an active metabolite of chloral hydrate?
(1) Chlorpromazine
(2) Trichloroethanol
(3) Dexmedetomidine
(4) Methylphenidate
Answer:
(2) Trichloroethanol
27. Morphine dependence is best characterised by which of the following ?
(1) Constricted pupils
(2) Masked face
(3) Jaundice
(4) Anorexia
Answer:
(1) Constricted pupils
28. O – demethylation of oxycodone gives which of the following?
(1) Noroxycodone
(2) Deoxycodone
(3) Deoxymorphone
(4) Oxymorphone
Answer:
(4) Oxymorphone
29. Cocaine isomers can be separated by HPLC using:
(1) Non polar columns
(2) Polar columns
(3) Semi polar columns
(4) Chiral columns
Answer:
(1) Non polar columns
30. Which enzyme regulates the metabolism of opiates?
(1) SULT 2
(2) CYP 2D6
(3) COMT
(4) MT
Answer:
(2) CYP 2D6
31. Consumption of which of the following causes blindness?
(1) Amphetamine
(2) Morphine
(3) Atropine
(4) Methanol
Answer:
(4) Methanol
32. Methanol toxicity is due to the formation of which of the following?
(1) Formic acid due to the action of dehydrogenase enzyme in liver
(2) Formic acid due to the action of dehydrogenase enzyme in kidney
(3) Formic acid due to the action of protease enzyme in liver
(4) Formic acid due to the action of protease enzyme in kidney
Answer:
(1) Formic acid due to the action of dehydrogenase enzyme in liver
33. The most reliable test for detection of semen in the absence of spermatozoa is:
(1) Acid phosphate
(2) Prostate specific antigen
(3) Esterase
(4) Florence test
Answer:
(1) Acid phosphate
34. Which of the following is not a presumptive test for the detection of semen?
(1) Phenolphthalein test
(2) Microscopic examination
(3) The P30 test
(4) The acid phosphatase test
Answer:
(1) Phenolphthalein test
35. Dideoxynucleoside triphosphates (ddNTPs) are used in sequencing DNA because:
(1) dd NTPs are fluorescent.
(2) dd NTPs are incorporated very efficiently into DNA by DNA polymerase.
(3) dd NTPs cannot be incorporated into DNA by DNA polymerase.
(4) dd NTPs prevent further DNA synthesis once they are incorporated into the DNA sequence.
Answer:
(4) dd NTPs prevent further DNA synthesis once they are incorporated into the DNA sequence.
36. Assertion (A) : Erythrocyte helps in detection of fetal blood.
Reason (R) : It fights infection in foetus.
Codes :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(2) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct.
Answer:
(2) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
37. The gene loci 1 of enzyme, PGM is of medico-legal importance, the reason being:
(1) Polymorphism
(2) Circular in shape
(3) Dark blue in colour
(4) Based on Mendelian law of inheritance
Answer:
(1) Polymorphism
38. Ultra – violet rays are known to damage DNA on its exposure due to:
(1) Breaking of bonds between G and C
(2) Formation of thymine-thymine dimers
(3) Formation of primer-dimer
(4) Extension of non-coding regions
Answer:
(2) Formation of thymine-thymine dimers
39. Consider following statements regarding amelogenin:
I. It can be used to differentiate sex.
II. Intron 1 in AMELX gene is 106 bp in size.
III. Using this technique sex can be determined from bone marrow.
IV. Amelogenin is a protein found in male genital system.
Codes:
(1) I, II and III are correct.
(2) I and III are correct.
(3) III and IV are correct.
(4) I and II are correct.
Answer:
(1) I, II and III are correct.
40. Which of these techniques is used to separate serum ?
(1) GLC
(2) HPLC
(3) Electrophoresis
(4) PCR
Answer:
(3) Electrophoresis
41. In PMT, the magnitude of signal is increased due to the action of:
(1) Vacuum
(2) Cathode
(3) Anode
(4) Dynode
Answer:
(4) Dynode
42. In flame atomization when the gas flow rate does not exceed the burning velocity the flame propagates back into the burner giving.
(1) Aerosol
(2) Atoms
(3) Secondary flame
(4) Flash back
Answer:
(4) Flash back
43. Name the microscope in which condenser is modified by replacing the substage iris with such a device which allows only a ring of light to pass through it.
(1) Phase contrast microscope
(2) Fluorescence microscope
(3) Stereo microscope
(4) Electron microscope
Answer:
(1) Phase contrast microscope
44. In a polarised light microscope a polarizer is placed:
(1) Below the objective
(2) Above the objective
(3) Below the sample
(4) Above the sample
Answer:
(3) Below the sample
45. In X RFS, filters are made up of which of the following ?
(1) Lead
(2) Aluminium
(3) Zerconium
(4) Beryllium
Answer:
(3) Zerconium
46. The forensic use of phadebas reagent was proposed by which of the following ?
(1) Alphonse Bertillon
(2) Willott
(3) Lee H.C.
(4) Jon J. Nordby
Answer:
(2) Willott
47. Grievous hurt as mentioned in Indian Law comprises all except:
(1) Emasculation
(2) Complete shaving of scalp hair
(3) Fracture or dislocation of bone or tooth
(4) Any hurt which endagers life.
Answer:
(2) Complete shaving of scalp hair
48. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
List-I (Type of Inquest) | List-II (Country) |
I. Police Inquest | A. USA |
II. Coroner’s inquest | B. India |
III. Procurator Fiscal’s inquest | C. Australia |
IV. Medical Examiner system | D. Chile |
E. Scotland |
Codes:
I | II | III | IV | |
1. | A | E | B | C |
2. | E | A | D | B |
3. | D | B | E | A |
4. | B | C | E | A |
Answer:
(4)
49. Section 326 A IPC deals with:
(1) Punishment for voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapons.
(2) Criminal force.
(3) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid.
(4) Kidnapping
Answer:
(3) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid.
50. Section 354 B IPC deals with:
(1) Battered baby syndrome.
(2) Stalking.
(3) Assault or criminal force to woman with intent to disrobe or compelling her to be naked.
(4) Assault or criminal force to any human being with intent to disrobe or compelling to be naked.
Answer:
(3) Assault or criminal force to woman with intent to disrobe or compelling her to be naked.