FACT and FACT Plus Exam 20 March 2022

Exam Name	FACT and FACT Plus Exam 20 March 2022
Test Date	20/03/2022
Test Time :	9:00 AM – 11:00 AM
Subject	Forensic Biological Sciences (FACT Plus)

Contents

• Section I: Aptitude in Forensic Science.
• Section II: Forensic Biological Science.

Section I: Aptitude in Forensic Science

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Section II: Forensic Biological Sciences

Q.51. Which is not a DNA extraction method

1. Solid phase
2. Organic method
3. ABA Card method
4. Chelax based

Answer: 3. ABA Card Method

Q.52. Name the scientist(s) who derived reconstruction formulae for stature from dry bones

1. Rollet (1888)
2. Trotter and Gleser (1952)
3. Karl Pearson (1899)
4. Telkka (1950)

Answer: 2. Trotter and Gleser (1952)

Q.53. Female pelvis is

1. Thick
2. Wider and thin
3. V Shaped
4. Heavier

Answer: 2. Wider and Thin

Q.54. Which is not found in Diatoms

1. Colpus
2. Chlorophyll
3. Xantophylls
4. Fucoxanthin

Answer: 1. Colpus

Q.55. The word Anthropolite is related to

1. Putrefied human body
2. Anatomy of human body
3. Petrified human body
4. Anthroposcopy of human body

Answer: 3. Petrified Human Body

Q.56. Odontoblasts produce

1. Enamel
2. Dentine
3. Cement
4. Peridental membrane

Answer: 2. Dentine

Q.57. What is the shape of the nucleus in monocytes?

1. Kidney shaped
2. Round shape
3. Apple shaped
4. Triangular shape

Answer: 1. Kidney shaped

Q.58. Multilocus probes are

1. Short DNA fragments which binds to target DNA at a single point
2. Long DNA fragments which binds to target DNA at a single point
3. Long DNA fragments which binds to target DNA at several points
4. Short DNA fragments which binds to target DNA at several points

Answer: 4. Short DNA fragments which binds to target DNA at several points

Q.59. Which statement describes the Hardy-Weinberg law the best:

1. In large populations, dominant alleles become more prevalent
2. It is impossible to predict expected allele frequencies mathematically
3. Mechanism of inheritance in a large population does not change allele frequency
4. Allele frequency changes over a period of time in a large population

Answer: 3. Mechanism of inheritance in a large population does not change allele frequency

Q.60. In Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium P represents

1. Frequency of dominant allele in a population
2. Frequency of Null allele in a population
3. Frequency of recessive allele in a population
4. Frequency of heterozygous genotype in a population

Answer: 1. Frequency of dominant allele in a population

Q.61. Which of the following subunits of RNA polymerase is solely required for the initiation of transcription?

1. σ (sigma)
2. α (alpha)
3. β (beta)
4. ω (omega)

Answer: 1. σ (sigma)

Q.62. Which is related to skull?

1. Arytenoids
2. Pterygoid
3. Scaphoid
4. Coracoids

Answer: 2. Pterygoid

Q.63. Which of them is a part of mt-DNA?

1. T-loop
2. S-loop
3. Y-loop
4. D-loop

Answer: 4. D-Loop

Q.64. Which is not useful in the identification of individuals from skeletalized remains

1. Dentition
2. Tattoos
3. Bone abnormalities
4. Surgical implants

Answer: 2. Tattoos

Q.65. Which is not a component of xylem:

1. Companion cells
2. Parenchyma
3. Tracheids
4. Vessels

Answer: 2. Parenchyma

Q.66. D13S137 and TPOX are

1. STR markers
2. Type of virus
3. Regions of mitochondria
4. Restriction enzyme

Answer: 1. STR Markers

Q.67. Who discovered radiographic atlas of skeletal development method of hand and wrist

1. Greulich and Pyle
2. Krogmann and Iscan
3. Tanner and Arheson
4. Thorsan and Hagg

Answer: 1. Greulich and Pyle

Q.68. In human beings, growth stops completely at around

1. 33 years
2. 16 years
3. 23 years
4. 10 years

Answer: 3. 23 Years

Q.69. Hesitation wound are

1. Mostly seen on back
2. Deep wound
3. Superficial and parallel
4. Abrasion

Answer: 3. Superficial and parallel

Q.70. One gene one-enzyme theory proposed by

1. Watson and Crick
2. Carry B Mullis
3. Beadle and Tatum
4. Gregor John Mendel

Answer: 3. Beadle and Tatum

Q.71. Hardest tissue in the human body is

1. Plaque
2. Enamel
3. Dentine
4. Cementum

Answer: 2. Enamel

Q.72. Which is a fruit fiber

1. Sisal
2. Mesta
3. Coir
4. Rosella

Answer: 3. Coir

Q.73. The DNA fingerprint pattern of a child is

1. 100% similar to the mother’s DNA profile
2. 50% similar to father’s DNA profile and rest similar to mother’s DNA profile
3. 100% similar to the father’s DNA profile
4. Exactly similar to that of both of the parents

Answer: 2. 50% similar to father’s DNA profile and rest similar to mother’s DNA profile

Q.74. Determination of age for the widest range is possible from

1. Skeleton
2. Secondary sex characters
3. Morphological characters
4. Tissue examination

Answer: 1. Skeleton

Q.75. Which of the following codons is the mRNA start codon that initiates translation?

1. AUG
2. UAG
3. UAA
4. UGA

Answer: 1. AUG

Q.76. Which is related to single gene mutation on chromosome 12?

1. Blindness
2. Cataract
3. Phenylketonuria
4. Leprosy

Answer: 3. Phenylketonuria

Q.77. Skin color in human being is an example of

1. Monogenic inheritance
2. Complementary genes
3. Mendelian inheritance
4. Polygenic inheritance

Answer: 4. Polygenic inheritance

Q.78. Which is not the product of Cannabis

1. Ganja
2. Hasish
3. Charas
4. Cocaine

Answer: 4. Cocaine

Q.79. Demirjian method of estimation of age is based on

1. Fusion of epiphysis with shaft
2. Cranial sutures
3. Developmental stages of teeth
4. All of the these

Answer: 3. Developmental stages of teeth

Q.80. Number of bone in each limb of a man

1. 20
2. 22
3. 16
4. 30

Answer: 4. 30

Q.81. The variation in the restriction DNA fragment lengths between individuals of a species is called:

1. RAPD
2. SSR
3. AFLP
4. RFLP

Answer: 4. RFLP

Q.82. A temporary loss of consciousness is called

1. Asphyxia
2. Comma
3. Syncope
4. Suffocation

Answer: 3. Syncope

Q.83. Polydactyly in man is due to

1. Autosomal dominant allele
2. Autosomal recessive allele
3. Sex linked recessive allele
4. Sex linked dominant allele

Answer: 1. Autosomal dominant allele

Q.84. Seed plants are of two groups

1. Fern and Mosses
2. Liverworts and Horse tails
3. Algae and Fungi
4. Angiosperms and Gymnosperms

Answer: 4. Angiosperms and Gymnosperms

Q.85. How many teeth does a human adult normally have?

1. 28
2. 32
3. 20
4. 24

Answer: 2. 32

Q.86. Voluntary muscles are

1. Hamstrings
2. Diaphragm
3. Locomotory muscles
4. Heart Muscles

Answer: 1. Hamstrings

Q.87. Component not required for PCR

1. Taq Polymerase
2. DNA template
3. Alcohol
4. PCR primer

Answer: 3. Alcohol

Q.88. Skeletal maturity in children and young adult is best measured by:

1. Radiological assessment of leg and pelvis region bone
2. Radiological assessment of hand and wrist bone development
3. Radiological assessment of Lumber vertebrae
4. Radiological assessment of skull

Answer: 2. Radiological assessment of hand and wrist bone development

Q.89. Joint between the Carpal and Metacarpal of thumb is

1. Hinge joints
2. Pivot joints
3. Saddle joints
4. Gliding joints

Answer: 3. Saddle joints

Q.90. A false positive result is best described as one that is given

1. When substance being tested for is absent
2. When the substance being tested for is present in large amounts
3. When substance being tested for is present in minute quantities
4. By a substance other than that being tested for

Answer: 4. By a substance other than that being tested for

Q.91. Hansen’s disease caused by

1. Virus
2. Bacteria
3. Protozoa
4. Fungi

Answer: 2. Bacteria

Q.92. Number of bones in human axial skeleton system are

1. 80
2. 100
3. 120
4. 95

Answer: 1. 80

Q.93. Which is not a side of a tooth

1. Distal
2. Ventral
3. Mesial
4. Bucca

Answer: 2. Ventral

Q.94. Amelogenin gene on X chromosomes is

1. 6 base pair longer as compare to that of Y chromosomes
2. 8 base pair longer as compare to that of Y chromosomes
3. 6 base pair shorter as compare to that of Y chromosomes
4. 8 base pair shorter as compare to that of Y chromosomes

Answer: 3. 6 base pair shorter as compare to that of Y chromosomes

Q.95. Type of joint which allow no movement under normal conditions

1. Synarthrosis
2. Diarthrosis
3. Amphiarthrosis
4. Knee joints

Answer:  1. Synarthrosis

Q.96. The gravitational settling of blood after death is

1. Livor mortis
2. Algor mortis
3. Rigor mortis
4. Pallor mortis

Answer: 1. Livor mortis

Q.97. Which of the following is a sequence alignment tool

1. PROSITE
2. PIR
3. PRINT
4. BLAST

Answer: 4. BLAST

Q.98. Brush burn refers to

1. Electric burn
2. Lightening burn
3. Pressure abrasion
4. Sliding abrasion

Answer: 4. Sliding abrasion

Q.99. Cartilage is formed by

1. Chondrocytes
2. Osteoblasts
3. Chondroblasts
4. Osteocytes

Answer: 3. Chondroblasts

Q.100. Which of the following white blood cells is capable of phagocytosis?

1. Neutrophils
2. Lymphocytes
3. Eosinophils
4. Basophils

Answer: 1. Neutrophils

Q.101. What is a plasmid DNA?

1. Small circular in size
2. DNA that replicate in bacteria independently
3. Found in cytoplasm of bacteria
4. All of These

Answer: 4. All of These

Q.102. Confirmation of menstrual blood stain is done by the following method:

1. Restriction enzyme
2. Protein marker
3. Fibrin Degradation Product (FDP)
4. Isoenzyme marker

Answer: 3. Fibrin Degradation Product (FDP)

Q.103. What does “0” means at the dentist’s?

1. Gums are perfect
2. None of these
3. Gums are bleeding
4. Gums are recessed

Answer: 1. Gums are Perfect

Q.104. Which amino acid is present in hair medullar protein that is usually not a component of proteins?

1. Glycine
2. Proline
3. Cystine
4. Citrulline

Answer: 2. Proline

Q.105. Specialized sebaceous gland in the eyelids is called

1. Holocrine gland.
2. Exocrine gland
3. Meibomian gland
4. Pileous gland

Answer: 3. Meibomaina gland

Q.106. The length of Amelogenin Locus in X-Chromosome is:

1. 110bp
2. 112bp
3. 114bp
4. 106bp

Answer: 4. 106bp

Q.107. DNA denaturation can be monitored by

1. UV absorbance
2. PCR
3. Sequencing
4. PAGE

Answer: 1. UV absorbance

Q.108. How are the primer dimers are determined in a PCR reaction

1. Adding high amount of sample in the reaction
2. Adding high amount of primer in the reaction
3. Compare reaction with negative control
4. Increasing number of PCR cycle

Answer: 3. Compare reaction with negative control

Q.109. Fossa refers to

1. A narrow ridge
2. Depression on bony surface
3. Broader ridge
4. Pointed process

Answer: 2. Depression on bony surface

Q.110. Colchicine arrests mitosis at

1. Prophase
2. Telophase
3. Metaphase
4. Anaphase

Answer: 3. Metaphase

Q.111. Mycobacterium leprae is responsible for

1. Leprosy
2. Influenza
3. Cancer
4. Stroke

Answer: 1. Leprosy

Q.112. How many STR loci were included by FBI in 1997 to constitute CODIS

1. 13
2. 16
3. 23
4. 26

Answer: 1. 13

Q.113. The most famous criminal case of bite mark conviction is of

1. Jeff Thomson
2. Ted Bundy
3. Mohd Ali
4. Wilkinson

Answer: 2. Ted Bundy

Q.114. Animal fibre Mohair is obtained from

1. Camel
2. Pig
3. Sheep
4. Goat

Answer: 4. Goat

Q.115. Rh factor found on the surface of RBCs is a

1. Protein
2. Amino acid
3. RNA
4. Glucose

Answer: 1. Protein

Q.116. Which is not a potential source of DNA for forensic analysis?

1. Red blood cells
2. Muscle tissue
3. Hair root
4. Epithelial cells in urine

Answer: 1. Red Blood Cells

Q.117. Primary transmission line of the nervous system are

1. Axons
2. Neurons
3. Dendrite
4. Node of Ranvier

Answer: 1. Axons

Q.118. Name the cell that receives antigen presented by MHC molecule.

1. B-cells
2. T-cells
3. Nk cells
4. Macrophages

Answer: 2.T-cells

Q.119. Genotope and phenotype were created by

1. Sutton and Boveri
2. Bateson
3. Jhonnson
4. Puneet

Answer: 3. Jhonnson

Q.120. Desiccation dead body leads to

1. Myiasis
2. Putrification
3. Mummification
4. Skeletization

Answer: 3. Mummification