Category Archives: MCQs

MCQs On Forensic Science (NET/JRF Preparations)

25 Multiple Choice Questions

Answers of Multiple Choice Questions

1.) 4

2.) 2

3.) 1

4.) 3

5.) 3

6.) 4

7.) 3

8.) 2

9.) 2

10) 2

11.) 1

12.) 3

13.) 2

14.) 2

15.) 3

16.) 3

17.) 3

18.) 2

19.) 3

20.) 4

21.) 1

22.) 1

23.) 1

24.) 2

25.) 2

Forensic Psychology

Multiple Choice Question

Question- All of the following are impulse disorder, except:

a.) Pyromania

b.) Trichotillomania

c.) Kleptomania

d.) Capgro’s Syndrome

Answer- d.) Capgro’s Syndrome

Explanation- An impulse control disorder is a condition in which a person has trouble controlling emotions or behaviors and constant urge to do things.

Pyromania is an impulse control disorder in which individuals repeatedly fail to resist impulses to deliberately start fires, in order to relieve tension or for instant gratification.

Trichotillomania (TTM), is an impulse control disorder in which person can not resist the urge of hair pulling disorder. it is a mental disorder characterized by a long-term urge that results in the pulling out of one’s hair.

Kleptomania is an impulse control disorder in which a person can not resist the urge to steal items. The things that are stolen are not needed for personal use or their monetary value. 

Capgras syndrome is also known as “imposter syndrome” or “Capgras delusion.” People who experience this syndrome will have an irrational belief that someone they know or recognize has been replaced by an imposter.

Forensic Medicine & Toxicology (MCQs)

Q-1. Segmented blood in retinal blood vessels, sign is: (AIIMS MAY 2015)

a) Rokitansky

b) Tache noir

c) Kevorkian

d) None

Answer: Kevorkian sign

Q-2. The ideal place to record temperature in dead body is from: (AIIMS MAY 2006)

a) Axilla

b) Groin

c) Rectum

d) Mouth

Answer: Rectum

Q-3. Brachiocephaly is due to fusion of

a) Saggital suture      

b) Coronal suture

c) Parietal suture

d) Lambdoid suture

Answer: Coronal Suture

Q-4. A dead body is having cadaveric lividity of bluish green color. The most likely cause of death is by poisoning due to: (AIIMS MAY 2006)

a) Hydrocyanic Acid

b) Hydrogen Sulfide

c) Oleander

d) Sodium Nitrite

Answer: Hydrogen Sulfide

Q-5. A dead body with suspected poisoning is having hypostasis of red brown or deep blue in color. It is suggestive of poisoning due to: (AIIMS NOV 2002)

a) Nitrates

b) Carbon monoxide

c) Cyanides

d) Barbiturates

Answer: Nitrates

Q-6. Rigor mortis is not seen in (AIIMS NOV 2013)

a) Female with strong built

b) Male with strong built

c) Old person >80yrs old

d) Fetus <20 wks gestation age

Answer: Fetus <20 wks gestation age

Q-7. In a suspected case of death due to poisoning, where cadaveric rigidity is lasting longer than usual, it may be a case of poisoning due to: (AIIMS May 2003)

a) Lead

b) Arsenic

c) Mercury

d) Copper

Answer: Arsenic

Q-8. Heat stiffening in muscles occurs above temperature- (AIIMS MAY 2012)

a) 30°C

b) 40°C

c) 50°C

d) 60°C

Answer: 60°C

Q-9. When a group of muscles of a dead body were in state of strong contraction immediately prior to death and remain so even after death, the condition is termed as: (AIIMS May 2005)

a) Gas stiffening

b) Rigor mortis

c) Cadaveric spasm

d) Cold stiffening

Answer: Cadaveric spasm

Q-10. Postmortem caloricity may be seen in all the following causes of death except: (AIIMS May 2005)

a) Septicemia

b) Barbiturate poisoning

c) Strychnine poisoning

d) Tetanus

Answer: Barbiturate poisoning

Q-11. Which one of the tissues putrefies late? (AIIMS NOV 2003)

a) Brain

b) Prostate

c) Liver

d) Stomach

Answer: Prostate

Q-12. Condition promoting adipocere formation (AIIMS MAY 2011)

a) Dry and hot

b) Hot and humid

c) Dry and optimum

d) Cold and moist

Answer: Hot and humid

Q-13. A dead born fetus does not have: (AIIMS May 2003)

a) Rigor mortis at birth

b) Adipocere formation

c) Maceration

d) Mummification

Answer: Adipocere formation

Q-14. Constituents of a typical embalming solution are all except (AIIMS NOV 2008)

a) Phenol

b) Glycerin

c) Formalin

d) Ethanol

Answer: Phenol

Q-15. The dead body of a murdered person is brought for preservation in mortuary. Which of the following statements is not correct? (AIIMS NOV 2004)

a) The body should be stored averagely at 4°C

b) The body can be embalmed before postmortem

c) The body should be never undressed before the forensic doctor has seen it

d) The body can be stored at –20°C to preserve it for long duration

Answer: The body can be embalmed before postmortem

50 ONE WORD Forensic Q&A

Question no. 1.- What is the best definition of forensic science?

Answer- The application of scientific knowledge and technology to the analysis of crime scene evidence.

Question no. 2.- What is the most likely case where a crime scene would be altered when taking photos of it?

Answer- The Presence Of Injured Victim.

Question no. 3.- In which city of India, the first Central Forensic Science laboratory of MHA, Government of India was established?

Answer- Calcutta

Question no. 4.- Which illumination is the best for striated tool marks?

Answer- Oblique Illumination

Question no. 5.- In which year, Sir C.V. Raman got Nobel Prize?

Answer- 1930

Question no. 6.- Corpus delecti means:

Answer- Body of crime

Question no. 7.- The first G.E.Q.D. Office in India was started at which place?

Answer- Shimla

Question no. 8.- If an object is immersed in a liquid of higher density then:

Answer- The object will float.

Question no. 9.- Sound travels at fastest speed in:

Answer- Steel

Question no. 10.- Which principles of forensic science was established by Mr. Edmund Locard?

Answer- Contact Exchanges Traces

Question no. 11.- Splashes of blood on striking a surface obliquely, would appear as:

Answer- Exclamation mark

Question no. 12.- The component NOT related to compound microscope is:

Answer- Electron gun

Question no. 13.- In microscopic examination, the ocular lens of 10X and objective lens of 20X would give magnification:

Answer- 200 times

Question no. 14.- The last step to be taken before releasing the crime scene should be:

Answer- Final survey

Question no. 15.- J. S. Verma commission was appointed as a consequence of

Answer- Nirbhaya Case

Question no. 16.- In which year the first Laboratory of Govt. Examiner of Questioned Documents was set up in India:-

Answer- 1904

Question no. 17.- Relative age of a signature can be ascertained by:-

Answer- By examination of the standard signature in a chronological order and comparing with the disputed signature.

Question no. 18.- A Document Expert notified as Assistant Chemical Examiner can also give evidence under:-

Answer-Section 293 of CrPC.

Question no. 19.- Close up photography is required in case of:

Answer- Forged signature

Question no. 20.- According to the Simon New Comb Theory:-

Answer- The probability of concurrence of all the events is equal to the continued product of the probability of each event.

Question no. 21.- Forensic Anthropology is concerned with which functions?

Answer- To identify people through skeletal remains.

Question no. 22.- Which statements about physical evidence available at scene of crime is NOT the appropriate?

Answer- All the articles available at the scene of crime should be collected and forwarded to forensic science laboratory

Question no. 23.- In crimes involving firearms, the clothes of victim bearing gun-shot holes should be handled in which ways?

Answer- Different clothes should be air-dried, properly folded after placing plastic sheets over the gun-shot holes, marked and then packed each cloth in a separate box.

Question no. 24.- For packing of different types of physical evidence, only clean Containers should be used, because it helps in maintaining:

Answer- The integrity of physical evidence.

Question no. 25.- In relation to electromagnetic spectrum, which statement is suitable?

Answer- Photons of x-rays are more energetic than those of visible and infrared rays.

Question no. 26.- Which statements is TRUE about Ramsden’s eye-piece?

Answer- It consists of two Plano convex lenses of equal focal length, separated by a distance equal to two-third of the focal length.

Question no. 27.- A polarizing microscope is used to identify birefringent minerals. The birefringent light beams are polarized to each other at which angles?

Answer- 90 degree

Question no. 28.- Who invented the polarising light microscope?

Answer- William Nichol

Question no. 29.- Which is appropriate method of handling a firearm recovered at scene of crime?

Answer- It should first be checked whether cocked or not, safety on or off, emptied, serial number noted, marked and then sealed.

Question no. 30.- What is the probability of all the three coins tossed simultaneously falling with pattern of one head and two tails?

Answer- 0.375

Question no. 31.- What should be the minimum number of laboratories participating in Proficiency test for quantitative analysis of a test item?

Answer- 3

Question no. 32.- Under which act/law, expert opinion is admissible?

Answer- Section 45 of INDIAN EVIDENCE ACT 1872.

Question no. 33.- Which evidence is subjective in nature?

Answer- Eye Witness statement.

Question no. 34.- ? is used to preserve blood for DNA profiling?

Answer- EDTA

Question no. 35.- Which may NOT be essential for the collection of clue material?

Answer- Purity of clue material.

Question no. 36.- Which element is irrelevant for a qualified and competent expert?

Answer- Of certain age.

Question no. 37.- Integrity of clue material is proved if Chain of custody is

Answer- Maintained.

Question no. 38.- Which is an optical digital data storage device?

Answer- BluRay disk.

Question no. 39.- Which technique is used to prevent altering of data on suspected drives?

Answer- Write blocking.

Question no. 40.- To verify the integrity of the original Hard Disk, we use

Answer- Hash value.

Question no. 41.- What is the full form of NIC used in computers?

Answer- Network Interface Card.

Question no. 42.- “Laser discs and compact discs” are classified as

Answer- Optical discs.

Question no. 43.- Which will NOT protect you from spam?

Answer- Popup blocker.

Question no. 44.- ? is using flash memory chips?

Answer- Thumb drive.

Question no. 45.- When shutting down a PC, what data is typically lost?

Answer- Running Processes.

Question no. 46.- Leone lattes was responsible for what contribution to forensic scientist?

Answer- The discovery of blood types and devising a method for determining blood groups for criminal investigation.

Question no. 47.- Conventional Serology would involve:

Answer- Species Identification and ABO grouping.

Question no. 48.- Who was the first scientist to bring into account the idea of anthropometry?

Answer- Alphonse bertillon

Question no. 49.- For toxicological analysis, which is classified as a volatile:

Answer- Ethanol, Methanol, Isopropanol.

Question no. 50.- Steps of gathering physical evidence involve:

Answer- Discovering, recognizing and examining it.

In this Video, we learn 150 important questions related to forensic science for any competitive examination like NET/JRF, FACT, and other examination related to forensic science.
For More Information Watch The Video Till End….
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MCQs On Forensic Toxicology

1. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of Digoxin toxicity?

A. Bradycardia
B. Yellow vision changes
C. Scooping of the T segment on ECG
D. Hypokalemia

2. Which information can be obtained from an acute toxicity study?

A. Median toxic dose (TD50)
B. Median lethal dose (LD50)
C. No Observed Adverse Effect Level (NOEL)
D. Target organ
E. All of the above

3. A particular dose of a substance X is minimal toxic to animal. Substance Y is also minimal toxic to the animals at the same dose, but when both the substances are administered together they show the toxicity several orders of magnitude higher than compared with individual administrations. This is an example of:

A. Potentiation
B. Synergism
C. Additivity
D. Acute Toxicity
E. Agonism

4. Which of the following chelating agents is recommended for acute Lead poisoning with signs of encephalopathy?

A. Succimer
B. Penicillamine
C. Dimercaprol
D. Calcium EDTA
E. Dimercaprol + Calcium EDTA

5. Which of the following dermatologic findings and potential causes is INCORRECT?

A. Cyanosis- Methemoglobinemia
B. Erythroderma – Boric Acid
C. Pallor – Carbon Monoxide
D. Jaundice – Hypercarotinemia (excess carrot intake)

6. All of the following symptoms can occur with Ciguatera poisoning EXCEPT…

A. Myalgias
B. Flushing
C. Metallic taste
D. Reversal of temperature sensation

7. Which of the following is true with regard to Acetaminophen toxicity?

A. The Rumack-Matthew Normogram may be used for both acute and chronic ingestions.
B. The APAP level should ideally be checked within 1-4 hours of ingestion.
C. The Rumack-Matthew Normogram applies for ingestions up to 48 hours post-ingestion.
D. N-Acetylcysteine (NAC) should be started within 8 hours of ingestion if an APAP level cannot be obtained.

8. All of the following are treatment options for toxic alcohol poisoning, EXCEPT…

A. Fomepizole
B. Hydroxocobalamin
C. Thiamine
D. Folic Acid

9. Which one of the following are the main targets of lead toxicity?

A. Liver and kidneys
B. Nervous system and hematopoietic system
C. Heart and lung
D. Bones and muscles

10. ‘Itai-itai’ disease is caused by______

A. Cadmium
B. Mercury
C. Lead
D. Copper

Answers with Explanation:

1. Answer: D.

Despite the number of patients who come in taking Digoxin, it is important to remember that this medication comes with a large range of side effects. Bradycardia (along with any of the other SLUDGE Toxidrome symptoms) is a common effect due to the Parasympathetic activity of Digoxin. (Note: This is also the reason it works as a second-line agent for rate control of Atrial Fibrillation.) Yellow, halo-like vision changes (think Van Gogh’s ‘Starry Night’) are a more rare, but classic finding.

2. Answer: E.

In an acute toxicity study any end point parameter such as death, brain damage, liver damage etc. can be used to obtain information regarding a particular toxicant.


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Prescott LF, Illingworth RN, Critchley JA, et al. Intravenous N-acetylcysteine: the treatment of choice for paracetamol poisoning. BMJ. 1979 Nov 3;2(6198):1097-100.

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